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MANAGER ADMINISTRATION (BS-17) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
NTS Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
9254 Total
Questions
~13881 mins Read
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4 Subject Areas
🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy
✓ 100% Comprehensive Guide
📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide
Candidate Selection Architecture for MANAGER ADMINISTRATION (BS-17)
📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint
The competitive recruitment screening for MANAGER ADMINISTRATION (BS-17) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Accounting & Corporate Finance, English Language Comprehension, General Knowledge, and Pakistan Affairs. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.
| Examination Subject / Question Type | Target Marks | Weightage | Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark |
|---|---|---|---|
| Accounting & Corporate Finance | 50 MCQs | 50% | Financial management and budgeting in public utilities, Human resource management and organizational behavior, Administrative procedures and office management |
| English Language Comprehension | 20 MCQs | 20% | Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension |
| General Knowledge | 15 MCQs | 15% | World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts |
| Pakistan Affairs | 15 MCQs | 15% | Constitutional history, Pakistan movement, national affairs, economy |
💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios
Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:
Scenario 1: Authentic Practical Scenario 1 for Manager Administration
Operational Dilemma: A new employee has been hired, but there are discrepancies in their employment contract. What steps would you take to resolve this issue?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: First, review the contract for any errors. Next, communicate with the hiring manager and HR department to clarify the discrepancies. Finally, update the employee's file and ensure all documentation is correct.
Standard: Proper contract review and communication with relevant departments.
Scenario 2: Authentic Practical Scenario 2 for Manager Administration
Operational Dilemma: An employee has reported a safety concern in the office. How would you address this issue?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Conduct a thorough investigation, document the findings, and implement necessary safety measures. Communicate the resolution to the employee and ensure ongoing monitoring.
Standard: Proper safety protocol and effective communication.
Scenario 3: Authentic Practical Scenario 3 for Manager Administration
Operational Dilemma: There is a backlog in the processing of administrative documents. What strategies would you employ to reduce this backlog?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Identify bottlenecks, streamline processes, and allocate additional resources if needed. Regularly monitor progress and adjust strategies as necessary.
Standard: Efficient process improvement and resource allocation.
🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview
Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.
Q1: How do you ensure compliance with organizational policies?
Model Response: I ensure compliance by regularly reviewing policies, providing training, and conducting audits to identify areas for improvement.
Q2: Can you describe a situation where you had to manage a conflict between two departments?
Model Response: In such a situation, I would first gather all relevant information, facilitate open communication between the parties, and work towards a mutually beneficial solution.
Q3: What strategies do you use to maintain high-quality records?
Model Response: I maintain high-quality records by implementing standardized procedures, using digital tools for accuracy, and conducting regular reviews to ensure completeness and accuracy.
Q4: How do you handle unexpected changes in administrative tasks?
Model Response: I handle unexpected changes by staying flexible, prioritizing tasks based on urgency, and communicating with my team to ensure everyone is aligned with the new priorities.
📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap
Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:
- Days 1-5: Accounting & Corporate Finance Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
- Days 6-8: English Language Comprehension Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
- Days 9-11: General Knowledge & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
- Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
- Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.
✅ 5. Examination Day Protocol & Merit Optimization Strategy
Candidates appearing for the MANAGER ADMINISTRATION (BS-17) (BS-17) screening examination should strictly observe official test center protocols: carry the original CNIC, printed Roll Number Slip, and black or blue ballpoint pens for OMR bubble shading. Allocate the first 45 minutes to high-confidence questions in Accounting & Corporate Finance and English Language Comprehension before attempting multi-step analytical items. Maintain a minimum 80% accuracy rate across attempted items to absorb any negative marking deductions and secure a top-decile merit ranking for the Departmental Selection Committee interview.
Q. 1
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q1: Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, what is the fundamental principle regarding prescribes the basis for prese?
A
Prescribes the basis for presentation of general purpose financial statements to ensure comparability.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: Prescribes the basis for presentation of general purpose financial statements to ensure comparability.
Q. 2
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q2: According to IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements reporting requirements, how is a complete set includes balance she treated?
A
A complete set includes balance sheet, P&L/OCI, changes in equity, cash flows, and notes.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: A complete set includes balance sheet, P&L/OCI, changes in equity, cash flows, and notes.
Q. 3
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q3: In financial statement auditing under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, which statement correctly specifies going concern and accrual basi?
A
Going concern and accrual basis are fundamental underlying assumptions.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: Going concern and accrual basis are fundamental underlying assumptions.
Q. 4
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q4: Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, what criteria govern the accounting application of fair presentation requires faith?
A
Fair presentation requires faithful representation of transactions under IFRS framework.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: Fair presentation requires faithful representation of transactions under IFRS framework.
Q. 5
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q5: How does IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements mandate the recognition and balance sheet measurement of offsetting assets and liabil?
A
Offsetting assets and liabilities is generally prohibited unless explicitly permitted.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: Offsetting assets and liabilities is generally prohibited unless explicitly permitted.
Q. 6
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q6: What is the key regulatory compliance requirement under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements for materiality governs line-item agg?
A
Materiality governs line-item aggregation on the face of financial statements.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: Materiality governs line-item aggregation on the face of financial statements.
Q. 7
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q7: Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, which financial rule applies directly to comparative information for the?
A
Comparative information for the preceding period is mandatory for all amounts.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: Comparative information for the preceding period is mandatory for all amounts.
Q. 8
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q8: In public and corporate accounting under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements, what standard applies to classification of current vs ?
A
Classification of current vs non-current assets is based on the 12-month or operating cycle rule.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 1 Presentation of Financial Statements: Classification of current vs non-current assets is based on the 12-month or operating cycle rule.
Q. 9
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q9: Under IAS 2 Inventories, what is the fundamental principle regarding prescribes the accounting trea?
A
Prescribes the accounting treatment for inventories under historical cost system.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: Prescribes the accounting treatment for inventories under historical cost system.
Q. 10
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q10: According to IAS 2 Inventories reporting requirements, how is inventories are measured at the low treated?
A
Inventories are measured at the lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV).
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: Inventories are measured at the lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV).
Q. 11
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q11: In financial statement auditing under IAS 2 Inventories, which statement correctly specifies lifo is strictly prohibited; f?
A
LIFO is strictly prohibited; FIFO and Weighted Average Cost are permissible cost formulas.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: LIFO is strictly prohibited; FIFO and Weighted Average Cost are permissible cost formulas.
Q. 12
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q12: Under IAS 2 Inventories, what criteria govern the accounting application of cost includes purchase price, im?
A
Cost includes purchase price, import duties, transport, and handling minus trade discounts.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: Cost includes purchase price, import duties, transport, and handling minus trade discounts.
Q. 13
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q13: How does IAS 2 Inventories mandate the recognition and balance sheet measurement of storage costs and abnormal w?
A
Storage costs and abnormal waste of materials must be expensed as incurred, not capitalized.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: Storage costs and abnormal waste of materials must be expensed as incurred, not capitalized.
Q. 14
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q14: What is the key regulatory compliance requirement under IAS 2 Inventories for write-down of inventory to nrv is?
A
Write-down of inventory to NRV is recognized as an expense in profit or loss.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: Write-down of inventory to NRV is recognized as an expense in profit or loss.
Q. 15
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q15: Under IAS 2 Inventories, which financial rule applies directly to reversals of inventory write-do?
A
Reversals of inventory write-downs are recognized in P&L when selling prices recover.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: Reversals of inventory write-downs are recognized in P&L when selling prices recover.
Q. 16
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q16: In public and corporate accounting under IAS 2 Inventories, what standard applies to standard cost and retail meth?
A
Standard cost and retail methods can be used if results approximate actual cost.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 2 Inventories: Standard cost and retail methods can be used if results approximate actual cost.
Q. 17
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q17: Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment, what is the fundamental principle regarding governs the recognition, measu?
A
Governs the recognition, measurement, and depreciation of tangible long-term assets.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Governs the recognition, measurement, and depreciation of tangible long-term assets.
Q. 18
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q18: According to IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment reporting requirements, how is cost includes purchase price, site treated?
A
Cost includes purchase price, site preparation, installation, and dismantling/restoration provisions.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Cost includes purchase price, site preparation, installation, and dismantling/restoration provisions.
Q. 19
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q19: In financial statement auditing under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment, which statement correctly specifies subsequent measurement choices?
A
Subsequent measurement choices are the Cost Model and the Revaluation Model.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Subsequent measurement choices are the Cost Model and the Revaluation Model.
Q. 20
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q20: Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment, what criteria govern the accounting application of revaluation surplus is recognize?
A
Revaluation surplus is recognized in OCI and accumulated under equity revaluation reserve.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Revaluation surplus is recognized in OCI and accumulated under equity revaluation reserve.
Q. 21
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q21: How does IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment mandate the recognition and balance sheet measurement of depreciation begins when the?
A
Depreciation begins when the asset is available for its intended use.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Depreciation begins when the asset is available for its intended use.
Q. 22
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q22: What is the key regulatory compliance requirement under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment for component depreciation is mandato?
A
Component depreciation is mandatory for significant parts with differing useful lives.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Component depreciation is mandatory for significant parts with differing useful lives.
Q. 23
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q23: Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment, which financial rule applies directly to routine repair and maintenance ?
A
Routine repair and maintenance costs must be expensed immediately in P&L.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Routine repair and maintenance costs must be expensed immediately in P&L.
Q. 24
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q24: In public and corporate accounting under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment, what standard applies to gains or losses on asset disp?
A
Gains or losses on asset disposal are recognized directly in profit or loss.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment: Gains or losses on asset disposal are recognized directly in profit or loss.
Q. 25
Accounting & Corporate Finance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q25: Under IAS 38 Intangible Assets, what is the fundamental principle regarding governs accounting for identif?
A
Governs accounting for identifiable non-monetary assets without physical substance.
✓ Correct
B
Immediate discretionary write-off to zero without disclosure
C
Application of historical cash-basis recording only
D
Direct charge to retained earnings without board approval
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under IAS 38 Intangible Assets: Governs accounting for identifiable non-monetary assets without physical substance.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Choose the correct answer for the following Pakistan Studies questions:
Q. 1
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which province of Pakistan is called Bab-ul-Islam?
A
Punjab
B
Sindh
✓ Correct
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Balochistan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sindh is known as the "Gateway of Islam" because it was the first region conquered by Muslims.
Q. 2
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim during the ____ period.
A
Umayyads
✓ Correct
B
Abbasids
C
Tulun
D
Idrisids
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The conquest occurred during the reign of the Umayyad Caliph Al-Walid I.
Q. 3
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim was the nephew of
A
Sulayman bin Abdul Malik
B
Abdul Malik bin Marwan
C
Walid bin Abdul Malik
D
Hajjaj bin Yousaf
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the nephew and son-in-law of Hajjaj, the governor of Iraq.
Q. 4
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim in ____ A.D.
A
712
✓ Correct
B
713
C
714
D
715
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The decisive campaign against Raja Dahir culminated in the victory of 712 AD.
Q. 5
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was the ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Dehli
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the last Hindu king of the Brahman dynasty in Sindh.
Q. 6
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was defeated by
A
Yazid bin Mulhib
B
Muhammad bin Qasim
✓ Correct
C
Tariq bin Ziyad
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The young Arab general defeated Dahir at the Battle of Aror.
Q. 7
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Debul and Alor are the names of
A
Places of Ancient Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Old Gardens of Sindh
C
Old Games of Sindh
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Debul was a seaport and Alor (Aror) was the capital of Sindh.
Q. 8
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Chach Nama is the ancient history of
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Rawalpindi
D
Sindh
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This historical work details the Chach Dynasty and the Arab conquest of Sindh.
Q. 9
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Makli Hill is the name of ____ which is situated in province of Sindh.
A
Graveyard
✓ Correct
B
Playground
C
Ancient building
D
Local dance
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Makli is one of the largest necropolises (cemeteries) in the world.
Q. 10
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Chach?
A
Father of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
B
Son of Raja Dahir
C
Son in law of Dahir
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chach of Aror was the founder of the Brahman dynasty and Dahir's father.
Q. 11
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Sisakar?
A
Wazir of Hajjaj bin Yousaf
B
Wazir of Muhammad bin Qasim
C
Wazir of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the Prime Minister of Raja Dahir who later joined the Muslim side.
Q. 12
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mohenjodaro is located in ____
A
Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Baluchistan
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Punjab
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This Indus Valley Civilization site is located in the Larkana District of Sindh.
Q. 13
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Al-Arus a huge balista used by Muhammad bin Qasim during the conquest of ____
A
Lahore
B
Depalpur
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Peshawar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Al-Arus was a massive catapult used to breach the walls of Debul in Sindh.
Q. 14
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim tortured to death in a prison in Iraq during the caliphate of ____
A
Sulaiman
✓ Correct
B
Walid
C
Yazid
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the death of Walid I and Hajjaj, Caliph Sulaiman bin Abdul Malik imprisoned him.
Q. 15
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 133 A.H/750 A.D. the Abbasids overthrew the ____
A
Safvids
B
Mughals
C
Umayyads
✓ Correct
D
Meds
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Abbasid Revolution ended the rule of the Umayyad dynasty.
Q. 16
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The Abbasids Governor came to Sindh in 140 A.H./757 A.D.
A
Hisham
B
Walid
C
Musa
✓ Correct
D
Yasir
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Musa bin Ka'b al-Tamimi was the first Abbasid governor of Sindh.
Q. 17
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Waihind (Modern Hund in District Attock) was the capital of ____
A
Umayyads
B
Abbassids
C
Mughals
D
Hindu Shahis
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hund served as the second capital of the Hindu Shahi kingdom.
Q. 18
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 367 A.H/777 A.D, Subuktigin, a Turkish slave become the master of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Depalpur
D
Ghazni
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sebuktigin founded the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan.
Q. 19
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Subuktigin died in August 997 A.D and was... succeeded by his brilliant and ambitious son, ____
A
Ahmad
B
Mahmood
✓ Correct
C
Ayaz
D
Arsalan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni succeeded his father and expanded the empire into India.
Q. 20
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood’s first important battle was fought against ____ near Peshawar in 8 Muharram 392 A.H 25 November 1001 A.D.
A
Jaipal
✓ Correct
B
Sukhpal
C
Anandpal
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud defeated the Shahi King Jaipal at the Battle of Peshawar.
Q. 21
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abu-al-Fath Daud was the Ismaili ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
✓ Correct
C
Sindh
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud of Ghazni conquered Multan from the Ismaili ruler Abul Fath Daud.
Q. 22
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood set out on the expedition to Somnath on 17 October ____
A
1023 A.D
B
1024 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1025 A.D
D
1026 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The expedition to the famous temple took place between 1024 and 1025.
Q. 23
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood breathed his last sigh on 30 April ____
A
1024 A.D.
B
1026 A.D.
C
1028 A.D.
D
1030 A.D.
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud passed away in Ghazni in the year 1030.
Q. 24
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D the first battle of Traain was fought between Muhammad Ghauri and Rajputs... Muhammad Ghauri defeated in this battle.
A
1189
B
1190
C
1191
✓ Correct
D
1192
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghauri in the first engagement at Tarain.
Q. 25
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D. the second battle of Train was fought and Rajputs defeated in this battle.
A
1190
B
1191
C
1192
✓ Correct
D
1193
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ghauri returned a year later and decisively defeated the Rajput confederacy.
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