Q. 1
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What are the traditional 'Five Rights' (now extended to Six/Eight) of medication administration that every nurse must verify?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The core rights of medication administration ensure patient safety: Right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation, and checking for allergies.
Q. 2
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A physician orders 1,000 mL of 0.9% Normal Saline to be infused intravenously over 8 hours. The drop factor of the infusion set is 15 drops/mL. What is the calculated flow rate in drops per minute (gtts/min)?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Flow rate = (Total Volume in mL × Drop Factor) / Time in minutes. (1000 × 15) / (8 × 60) = 15000 / 480 ≈ 31.25 drops/min (31 gtts/min).
Q. 3
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Prior to administering a prescribed dose of Digoxin, the nurse should routinely assess which vital sign and withhold the drug if it is below 60 bpm in an adult?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows AV conduction; apical pulse must be counted for 60 seconds and the drug held if heart rate < 60 bpm to prevent toxic bradycardia.
Q. 4
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which laboratory parameter must be closely monitored by the nurse in a patient receiving continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin therapy?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Unfractionated heparin therapy is titrated against the aPTT (target typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control baseline). In contrast, Warfarin is monitored with PT/INR.
Q. 5
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
When storing high-alert controlled substances such as Morphine, Pethidine, and Fentanyl in a hospital ward, what is the mandatory regulatory protocol?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Dangerous and scheduled controlled drugs require double-locked storage, dual-nurse sign-off for waste, and meticulous accountability logs according to narcotics control legislation.
Q. 6
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which needle gauge and length is typically selected by a nurse for an intradermal injection (such as a Mantoux tuberculin test)?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Intradermal injections require a very fine, short needle (26-27 gauge, 3/8 to 1/2 inch) inserted bevel-up at a 5-15 degree angle to create a visible wheal.
Q. 7
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In a hospital shift handover, which standardized communication framework is widely recommended to ensure patient safety and transfer of critical clinical information?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SBAR provides a structured, concise method for communicating patient condition between nurses and physicians, significantly reducing clinical communication errors.
Q. 8
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The specific antidote kept readily available on the ward for rapid reversal of unfractionated Heparin overdose is:
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Protamine sulfate is a strongly basic protein that binds strongly acidic heparin to form an inactive stable salt, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects.
Q. 9
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following describes the ethical nursing principle of 'Autonomy'?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy is the ethical principle upholding a competent patient's right to self-determination, informed consent, and refusal of treatment.
Q. 10
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
When administering an subcutaneous injection of regular insulin, which site has the fastest and most consistent rate of systemic absorption?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The abdomen provides the most rapid and consistent absorption of subcutaneous insulin, followed by the arms, thighs, and buttocks.
Q. 11
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Before administering a scheduled dose of metoprolol (a beta-blocker), the nurse should assess:
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Beta-blockers cause negative chronotropy and inotropy; doses are withheld if heart rate is < 60 bpm or systolic blood pressure < 100 mmHg.
Q. 12
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the immediate action when a nurse discovers a medication administration error?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Patient safety is the top priority; assessing the patient for adverse consequences comes first, followed by immediate physician notification and formal incident documentation.
Q. 13
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets prescribed for acute angina pectoris should be instructed to:
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sublingual administration bypasses extensive hepatic first-pass metabolism, allowing rapid absorption directly into systemic circulation within 1-3 minutes.
Q. 14
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A nurse is caring for a patient on Furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the patient at greatest risk of developing?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Loop diuretics enhance potassium excretion in the urine, requiring regular serum potassium monitoring and potassium-rich diet or supplements.
Q. 15
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary role of the triage nurse in an emergency department?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Emergency triage sorts incoming patients based on acuity (e.g., Resuscitation, Emergent, Urgent, Non-urgent) so that critically ill patients receive immediate intervention.
Q. 16
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
When drawing up Regular (clear) insulin and NPH (cloudy) insulin into a single syringe, what is the correct sequence?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The mnemonic 'Clear before Cloudy' prevents contaminating the fast-acting clear Regular insulin vial with intermediate cloudy NPH insulin.
Q. 17
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which adverse effect of opioid analgesics does NOT develop tolerance over time and requires proactive nursing bowel management?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Patients develop tolerance to opioid-induced sedation and nausea, but tolerance to constipation and miosis never occurs; prophylactic laxatives and hydration are mandatory.
Q. 18
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In preparing a sterile tray on the ward, which portion of the sterile field is considered non-sterile (contaminated)?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The 1-inch border along the outer edges of a sterile drape is considered unsterile because it is vulnerable to contact with unsterile surroundings.
Q. 19
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary antidote administered to reverse the toxic respiratory depression caused by benzodiazepines (e.g., Diazepam, Midazolam)?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Flumazenil is a competitive antagonist at the central GABA-benzodiazepine receptor complex, reversing benzodiazepine sedation.
Q. 20
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The primary purpose of applying a tourniquet on a limb during venous blood collection is to:
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A tourniquet obstructs venous return while permitting arterial inflow, dilating peripheral veins for easier venipuncture; it should not remain on for > 1 minute.
Q. 21
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Clinical Scenario 4: In managing a specialized nursing procedure for Nursing Pharmacology & Ward Administration, which clinical standard ensures optimal patient safety and outcome?
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adherence to institutional aseptic guidelines, rigorous monitoring of patient physiological responses, and precise charting constitute the gold standard of professional nursing accountability.
Q. 22
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Clinical Scenario 8: In managing a specialized nursing procedure for Nursing Pharmacology & Ward Administration, which clinical standard ensures optimal patient safety and outcome?
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adherence to institutional aseptic guidelines, rigorous monitoring of patient physiological responses, and precise charting constitute the gold standard of professional nursing accountability.
Q. 23
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Clinical Scenario 12: In managing a specialized nursing procedure for Nursing Pharmacology & Ward Administration, which clinical standard ensures optimal patient safety and outcome?
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adherence to institutional aseptic guidelines, rigorous monitoring of patient physiological responses, and precise charting constitute the gold standard of professional nursing accountability.
Q. 24
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Clinical Scenario 16: In managing a specialized nursing procedure for Nursing Pharmacology & Ward Administration, which clinical standard ensures optimal patient safety and outcome?
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adherence to institutional aseptic guidelines, rigorous monitoring of patient physiological responses, and precise charting constitute the gold standard of professional nursing accountability.
Q. 25
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Clinical Scenario 20: In managing a specialized nursing procedure for Nursing Pharmacology & Ward Administration, which clinical standard ensures optimal patient safety and outcome?
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adherence to institutional aseptic guidelines, rigorous monitoring of patient physiological responses, and precise charting constitute the gold standard of professional nursing accountability.
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