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Law & Judicial Studies | Topic-Wise Comprehensive Solved Pool
410 Total Solved Questions
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Civil Procedure Code (CPC 1908)
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Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC 1898)
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Constitutional Law of Pakistan 1973
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Pakistan Penal Code (PPC 1860)
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Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984
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Specific Relief & Contracts
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) 1908, the doctrine of 'Res Sub-Judice' mandates that:
A
No Court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties
✓ Correct
B
No decree can ever be executed outside Pakistan
C
All civil suits must be settled by arbitration within 30 days
D
A plaintiff cannot file more than one document
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 10 CPC bars the trial of a subsequently instituted suit where the matter in issue is directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties litigating under the same title (Res Sub-Judice / stay of suit).
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 11 of the CPC, the doctrine of 'Res Judicata' bars a court from trying any suit or issue in which the matter has been:
A
Heard and finally decided by a competent court in a former suit between the same parties litigating under the same title
✓ Correct
B
Discussed in an informal mediation
C
Published in a newspaper
D
Withdrawn with permission to file afresh
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 11 CPC establishes Res Judicata: No Court shall try any suit or issue in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties and has been heard and finally decided by a competent court.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Order VII Rule 11 of the CPC, a Plaint MUST be rejected by the civil court in which of the following instances?
A
Where it does not disclose a cause of action, or where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
✓ Correct
B
Whenever the defendant files a written statement
C
If the plaintiff hires a private advocate
D
If the claim exceeds Rs. 1,000,000
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order VII Rule 11 CPC mandates the rejection of a plaint where: (a) it does not disclose a cause of action, (b) relief claimed is undervalued, (c) insufficiently stamped, or (d) suit is barred by any law (e.g. limitation).
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 of the CPC, what three classic ingredients must a plaintiff establish to obtain a Temporary Injunction?
A
Prima facie case, Irreparable loss/injury, and Balance of convenience
✓ Correct
B
Criminal record, tax certificate, and witness affidavit
C
Bank guarantee, police clearance, and domicile certificate
D
Consent of the federal government, land registry, and municipal permit
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The grant of interim/temporary injunction under Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2 CPC requires simultaneous satisfaction of three conditions: (1) A good prima facie case, (2) Balance of convenience in favor of applicant, and (3) Irreparable loss or injury if injunction is refused.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Section 151 of the CPC saves which inherent powers of the civil court?
A
Inherent powers to make such orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the process of the court
✓ Correct
B
Powers to issue warrants of death
C
Powers to levy custom tariffs on imported goods
D
Powers to dissolve provincial assemblies
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 151 CPC explicitly provides that nothing in the Code shall limit or affect the inherent power of the court to make such orders as necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of judicial process.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 9 of the CPC 1908, the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature EXCEPT:
A
Suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred by any enactment
✓ Correct
B
Suits relating to immovable property valued over Rs. 1,000,000
C
Suits between members of the same family
D
Suits where contract is executed on a holiday
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 9 CPC is the general grant of civil jurisdiction: 'The Courts shall (subject to the provisions herein contained) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred.'
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 15 of the CPC, every suit shall be instituted in the Court of the:
A
Lowest grade competent to try it
✓ Correct
B
Highest grade in the province
C
District Court directly
D
High Court original side
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 15 CPC establishes the rule of pecuniary venue: 'Every suit shall be instituted in the Court of the lowest grade competent to try it.'
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 16 of the CPC, suits for the recovery of immovable property, partition, foreclosure, or determination of any right/interest in immovable property shall be instituted in the Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:
A
The property is situate
✓ Correct
B
The plaintiff resides
C
The defendant's bank account is located
D
The advocate has his chamber
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 16 CPC embodies the territorial jurisdiction rule of lex situs: Suits relating to immovable property must be instituted in the court within whose territorial jurisdiction the property is situated.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 20 of the CPC, suits other than those concerning immovable property shall be instituted in a Court within whose local limits the defendant:
A
Actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain, or where the cause of action wholly or in part arises
✓ Correct
B
Holds an overseas bank account
C
Maintains an ancestral grave
D
Intends to travel in the future
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 20 CPC provides the general residual venue rule: Suits shall be instituted where the defendant resides, carries on business, works for gain, or where the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 26 and Order IV Rule 1 of the CPC, every suit shall be instituted by the presentation of a:
A
Plaint (in duplicate)
✓ Correct
B
First Information Report (FIR)
C
Affidavit sworn before a police officer
D
Memorandum of appeal
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 26 and Order IV Rule 1 CPC mandate that every suit shall be instituted by presenting a plaint to the Court or such officer as it appoints, in duplicate, verified by affidavit.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Order VI Rule 1 of the CPC, 'Pleading' means:
A
Plaint or Written Statement
✓ Correct
B
Only oral arguments delivered by counsel
C
Police zimni diaries
D
Judgment of the appellate court
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order VI Rule 1 CPC states: 'Pleading shall mean a plaint or written statement.'
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the cardinal rule of pleadings under Order VI Rule 2 of the CPC?
A
Every pleading shall contain, and contain only, a statement in a concise form of the material facts on which the party relies, but not the evidence by which they are to be proved
✓ Correct
B
Pleadings must set out law and legal sections only
C
Pleadings must include the complete depositions of all witnesses
D
Pleadings can contain speculative rumors
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order VI Rule 2 CPC dictates the fundamental rule of pleading: Plead facts, not law; plead material facts only; and do not plead evidence (facta probanda, not facta probantia).
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Order VI Rule 17 of the CPC, the Court may at any stage of the proceedings allow either party to alter or amend his pleadings:
A
In such manner and on such terms as may be just, and all such amendments shall be made as may be necessary for determining the real questions in controversy between the parties
✓ Correct
B
Only before summons are issued
C
Only if the opposite party consents in writing
D
Only in partition suits
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order VI Rule 17 CPC confers wide discretionary powers on courts to allow amendment of pleadings at any stage to determine the real controversies between parties, provided it does not change the fundamental nature of the suit.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Order VIII Rule 1 of the CPC, the defendant shall present a written statement of his defence within:
A
30 days (extendable up to maximum statutory limits prescribed by provincial amendments)
✓ Correct
B
Two years
C
One week
D
Indefinite period until arguments
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order VIII Rule 1 CPC requires the defendant to file written statement within 30 days of service of summons, with extensions granted only on sufficient cause.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the legal effect if a defendant fails to deny specifically an allegation of fact made in the plaint under Order VIII Rule 5 CPC?
A
Every allegation of fact in the plaint, if not denied specifically or by necessary implication, shall be taken to be admitted
✓ Correct
B
The suit is dismissed automatically
C
The plaintiff must file an amended plaint
D
The court refers the matter to police investigation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order VIII Rule 5 embodies the doctrine of non-traverse: Every allegation of fact in the plaint, if not denied specifically or by necessary implication, or stated to be not admitted in the pleading of the defendant, shall be taken to be admitted.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Order XIV Rule 1 of the CPC, 'Issues' arise when:
A
A material proposition of fact or law is affirmed by the one party and denied by the other
✓ Correct
B
Both parties agree on all terms of settlement
C
The defendant admits the entire claim
D
The suit is withdrawn
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order XIV Rule 1 CPC provides that issues arise when a material proposition of fact or law is affirmed by one party and denied by the other. Issues are of two kinds: (a) issues of fact, and (b) issues of law.
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Order IX Rule 8 of the CPC, where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, the Court shall make an order:
A
That the suit be dismissed, unless the defendant admits the claim
✓ Correct
B
Decreeing the suit in favor of plaintiff
C
Arresting the plaintiff
D
Transferring the suit to another province
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order IX Rule 8 CPC states that where defendant appears and plaintiff does not, the Court shall dismiss the suit, unless the defendant admits the claim, in which case it shall pass a decree against the defendant upon such admission.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Order IX Rule 9 of the CPC, where a suit is dismissed under Rule 8 for non-appearance of plaintiff, the plaintiff is precluded from bringing a fresh suit on the same cause of action, but may apply for an order to:
A
Set the dismissal aside upon showing sufficient cause (Restoration of Suit)
✓ Correct
B
File an appeal before the Supreme Court directly
C
Institute criminal contempt against the defendant
D
Amend the title of the property
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order IX Rule 9 allows the plaintiff to apply within the statutory limitation period (30 days) to set aside the dismissal by proving sufficient cause for non-appearance.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Order IX Rule 13 of the CPC, an ex parte decree passed against a defendant may be set aside if the defendant satisfies the Court that:
A
The summons was not duly served, or that he was prevented by any sufficient cause from appearing when the suit was called on for hearing
✓ Correct
B
He did not like the presiding judge
C
His lawyer was occupied with non-legal business
D
The subject matter property increased in market value
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Order IX Rule 13 CPC provides that in any case in which a decree is passed ex parte against a defendant, he may apply to set it aside; and if he satisfies the court that summons was not duly served or that he was prevented by sufficient cause, the court shall make an order setting aside the decree.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 34 of the CPC, where a decree is for the payment of money, the Court may award:
A
Interest at such rate as the Court deems reasonable on the principal sum adjudged
✓ Correct
B
Double the amount in gold bullion
C
A share in the defendant's commercial corporation
D
Criminal imprisonment of 14 years automatically
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 34 CPC empowers the court to order interest from the date of the suit to the date of the decree, and further interest from the date of the decree to the date of payment.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 80 of the CPC, no suit shall be instituted against the Government or against a public officer in respect of any act purporting to be done in official capacity until the expiration of:
A
Two months next after notice in writing has been delivered or left at the office
✓ Correct
B
Seven days
C
Six months
D
One year
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 80 CPC mandates a two-month statutory notice in writing prior to instituting a suit against the Government (Secretary to Government) or against a public officer for acts in official capacity.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 96 of the CPC, an appeal shall lie from:
A
Every decree passed by any Court exercising original jurisdiction, save where otherwise expressly provided
✓ Correct
B
Every procedural order of adjournment
C
Orders framing issues
D
Only decrees passed with consent of parties
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 96(1) CPC provides that save where otherwise expressly provided, an appeal shall lie from every decree passed by any Court exercising original jurisdiction to the Court authorized to hear appeals. Section 96(3) bars appeal from a consent decree.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 115 of the CPC, the High Court (or District Court) exercises 'Revisional Jurisdiction' where a subordinate court appears to have:
A
Exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it by law, or failed to exercise a jurisdiction so vested, or acted illegally or with material irregularity
✓ Correct
B
Passed a decree on merits after recording evidence
C
Granted bail in a non-bailable offence
D
Dismissed a suit on compromise
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 115 CPC defines revisional jurisdiction limited to jurisdictional errors: (a) exercising jurisdiction not vested, (b) failing to exercise jurisdiction vested, or (c) acting in the exercise of jurisdiction illegally or with material irregularity.
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All 23 Solved Questions in Civil Procedure Code (CPC 1908) Loaded!
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 4(1)(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1898, a 'Complaint' means:
A
An allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate, with a view to his taking action under the Code, that some person has committed an offence
✓ Correct
B
A First Information Report (FIR) registered at a police station
C
An intelligence report submitted by a security agency
D
A formal charge framed by a Sessions Judge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 4(1)(h) CrPC explicitly defines complaint as an allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate with a view to his taking action, but does not include the report of a police officer.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is a 'Cognizable Offence' as defined under Section 4(1)(f) of the CrPC?
A
An offence for which a police officer may, in accordance with the second schedule or any other law, arrest without warrant
✓ Correct
B
An offence punishable only with fine
C
An offence which can only be tried by the High Court
D
An offence triable exclusively under civil jurisdiction
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 4(1)(f) CrPC defines a cognizable offence as an offence in which a police officer may arrest the suspect without a warrant from a Magistrate.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 6 of the CrPC, besides the High Courts and courts established under other laws, what are the two main classes of Criminal Courts in Pakistan?
A
Courts of Session and Courts of Magistrates
✓ Correct
B
Revenue Courts and Family Courts
C
Panchayats and Jirgas
D
Arbitration Tribunals and Conciliation Courts
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 6 of CrPC establishes: 'Besides the High Courts and the Courts established under any other law... there shall be two classes of Criminal Courts in Pakistan, namely: I. Courts of Session; II. Courts of Magistrates.'
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 31(2) of the CrPC, a Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass which sentence authorized by law?
A
Any sentence authorized by law, but any sentence of death passed by such Judge shall be subject to confirmation by the High Court
✓ Correct
B
Imprisonment up to a maximum of seven years only
C
Imprisonment up to 14 years without death sentence power
D
Only fines not exceeding Rs. 500,000
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 31(2) CrPC, a Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorized by law, but any death sentence passed requires confirmation by the High Court under Section 374 CrPC.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 32 of the CrPC, what is the maximum term of imprisonment and fine that a Magistrate of the First Class can impose?
A
Imprisonment not exceeding 3 years, and fine not exceeding Rs. 45,000 (or as amended by provincial statutes)
✓ Correct
B
Imprisonment not exceeding 7 years, and unlimited fine
C
Imprisonment not exceeding 1 year, and fine of Rs. 5,000
D
Life imprisonment
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 32 CrPC, Courts of Magistrates of the First Class may pass sentences of imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years and fines up to prescribed limits (Sec 30 Magistrates have enhanced powers up to 7 years).
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 54 of the CrPC, a police officer may arrest any person without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant:
A
Who has been concerned in any cognizable offence, or against whom reasonable complaint/suspicion exists
B
Who has in his possession without lawful excuse any implement of house-breaking
C
Who has been proclaimed an offender under the Code or by the Provincial Government
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 54 CrPC lists nine specific clauses empowering a police officer to arrest without a warrant, including commission of cognizable offence, possession of house-breaking implements, proclaimed offenders, stolen property, obstruction of police, and deserters.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 61 of the CrPC, a police officer cannot detain an arrested person in custody without a warrant for a period exceeding:
A
12 hours
B
24 hours (exclusive of the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court)
✓ Correct
C
48 hours
D
72 hours
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 61 CrPC and Article 10(2) of the Constitution of Pakistan mandate that no police officer shall detain in custody a person arrested without warrant for a longer period than 24 hours, excluding journey time, without a special order from a Magistrate under Section 167.
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 103 of the CrPC, searches of closed places must be conducted in the presence of:
A
Two or more respectable inhabitants of the locality (mashirs)
✓ Correct
B
At least one judicial magistrate
C
A member of the National Assembly
D
The defence counsel of the accused
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 103 CrPC mandates that before making a search, the officer shall call upon two or more respectable inhabitants of the locality to attend and witness the search, and prepare a search memo (mashirnama) signed by them.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Registration of a First Information Report (FIR) relating to the commission of a cognizable offence is governed by which section of the CrPC?
A
Section 154
✓ Correct
B
Section 156
C
Section 161
D
Section 173
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 154 CrPC provides the mandatory procedure for recording information in cognizable cases (First Information Report - FIR), which must be reduced to writing, read over to the informant, and signed.
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
If an officer in charge of a police station refuses to register an FIR under Section 154, what statutory remedy is available before the Ex-Officio Justice of Peace under Section 22-A and 22-B CrPC?
A
Filing an application before the Sessions Judge / Ex-officio Justice of Peace seeking directions to register the case
✓ Correct
B
Filing a contempt petition before the Supreme Court directly
C
Applying for a stay order in a Family Court
D
Submitting a representation to the Federal Ombudsman only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Sections 22-A and 22-B CrPC, the Sessions Judge and Additional Sessions Judges act as Ex-Officio Justices of the Peace with power to issue directions to police authorities to register an FIR, transfer investigation, or rectify police neglect.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Statements of witnesses recorded by an investigating police officer during investigation are recorded under which section of the CrPC?
A
Section 161
✓ Correct
B
Section 164
C
Section 172
D
Section 342
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 161 CrPC empowers the investigating police officer to examine orally any person supposed to be acquainted with the facts of the case and reduce their statements into writing.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Can a statement of a witness recorded under Section 161 of the CrPC be signed by the person making it?
A
Yes, it must be signed under oath
B
No, Section 162 CrPC expressly prohibits the signing of any statement made to a police officer during investigation
✓ Correct
C
Only if verified by a notary public
D
Only if the witness is an eye-witness
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 162 CrPC specifically lays down that no statement made by any person to a police officer in the course of an investigation shall be signed by the person making it, nor used as substantive evidence except to contradict a witness under Article 140 QSO.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A judicial confession of an accused or statement of a witness recorded before a Magistrate during investigation is governed by which section of the CrPC?
A
Section 161
B
Section 164
✓ Correct
C
Section 173
D
Section 364
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 164 CrPC empowers any Magistrate of the First Class to record any confession or statement made to him in the course of an investigation, provided the statutory warnings (that the accused is not bound to confess) are satisfied.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the maximum aggregate period of physical remand in police custody that a Magistrate can grant under Section 167 of the CrPC?
A
7 days
B
14 days (or 15 days in aggregate)
✓ Correct
C
30 days
D
90 days
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 167(2) CrPC, the Magistrate may authorize detention of the accused in police custody from time to time, for a term not exceeding 15 days in the whole (in practice, granted in installments up to 14-15 days max).
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 173 of the CrPC, what is the statutory time limit within which the police must submit the investigation report (Challan) to the court?
A
Within 7 days of FIR
B
Within 14 days from the date of recording of the FIR (with an interim report if investigation is incomplete)
✓ Correct
C
Within 60 days
D
Within 6 months
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 173(1) CrPC, the police report (Challan) must be forwarded through the public prosecutor within 14 days. If the investigation cannot be completed within 14 days, an interim report must be submitted within 3 days thereafter.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Section 172 of the CrPC requires every police officer making an investigation to maintain a day-to-day record in a:
A
Case Diary (Zimni)
✓ Correct
B
General Register
C
Charge sheet index
D
Bail bond register
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 172 CrPC mandates that every investigating officer enter day by day his proceedings in a diary (commonly termed Zimni), recording the time, places visited, and statement of circumstances ascertained.
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 190 of the CrPC, a Magistrate takes 'Cognizance' of an offence upon:
A
Receiving a private complaint of facts which constitute such offence
B
A police report (Challan) submitted under Section 173
C
Information received from any person other than a police officer, or upon his own knowledge/suspicion
D
Any of the above grounds
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 190(1) CrPC empowers Magistrates to take cognizance of offences upon: (a) complaint, (b) police report, or (c) information received or own knowledge/suspicion.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the procedure followed by a Magistrate when an offence is triable exclusively by the Court of Session under Section 190(2) CrPC?
A
Conduct a full trial and deliver verdict
B
Send the case to the Court of Session for trial without conducting preliminary inquiry
✓ Correct
C
Discharge the accused immediately
D
Dismiss the case for lack of jurisdiction
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 190(2) CrPC, a Magistrate taking cognizance of an offence triable exclusively by the Court of Session shall send the case to the Court of Session for trial without recording evidence.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 249-A of the CrPC, a Magistrate has the statutory power to acquit an accused:
A
At any stage of the case, after hearing prosecutor and accused, if the charge is groundless or there is no probability of conviction
✓ Correct
B
Only after all prosecution witnesses have testified and cross-examined
C
Only if the complainant explicitly forgives the accused
D
Only after the High Court grants permission
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 249-A CrPC empowers a Magistrate to acquit the accused at any stage of the case, after hearing both sides and for reasons to be recorded, if he considers the charge groundless or that there is no probability of conviction.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which section of the CrPC confers corresponding power upon a Court of Session or High Court to acquit an accused at any stage of trial if the charge is groundless?
A
Section 265-K
✓ Correct
B
Section 249-A
C
Section 561-A
D
Section 497
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 265-K CrPC gives Sessions Courts and High Courts the power to acquit an accused at any stage of the trial if there is no probability of the accused being convicted.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 342 of the CrPC, when is the trial court required to examine the accused personally?
A
For the purpose of enabling the accused to explain any circumstances appearing in the evidence against him, after prosecution evidence is closed
✓ Correct
B
Before any prosecution witness is summoned
C
Only if the accused requests it in writing
D
Only in summary trials
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 342 CrPC mandates that the court question the accused generally on the case after the prosecution witnesses have been examined, to give the accused an opportunity to explain incriminating circumstances appearing against him.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 340(2) of the CrPC, an accused person in a criminal trial:
A
Shall give evidence on oath in disproof of the charges made against him
✓ Correct
B
Is completely forbidden from giving evidence on oath
C
Can only give evidence through his legal attorney without oath
D
Can only give evidence if confessed previously
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following procedural amendments in Pakistan, Section 340(2) CrPC provides that an accused person shall be called upon by the court to give evidence on oath in disproof of charges, and his failure to do so does not create a presumption of guilt.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Section 403 of the CrPC and Article 13 of the Constitution of Pakistan embody the fundamental legal doctrine of:
A
Double Jeopardy (Autrefois acquit and Autrefois convict)
✓ Correct
B
Presumption of Innocence
C
Exclusionary Rule
D
Strict Liability
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 403 CrPC bars retrial of a person who has once been tried by a court of competent jurisdiction and convicted or acquitted of an offence (Autrefois convict / Autrefois acquit), reinforced by Article 13 of the Constitution.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 496 of the CrPC, bail in 'Bailable Offences' is:
A
A matter of right
✓ Correct
B
A matter of judicial discretion
C
Subject to approval by the prosecutor general
D
Prohibited during investigation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In bailable offences under Section 496 CrPC, grant of bail is an absolute statutory right, not a concession. If the accused is prepared to furnish security, the police officer or court is bound to release him.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 497(1) of the CrPC, in non-bailable offences, bail shall NOT be granted if there appear reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is guilty of an offence punishable with:
A
Death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for 10 years (Prohibitory Clause)
✓ Correct
B
Imprisonment for 3 years
C
Fine exceeding Rs. 50,000
D
Summary trial punishment
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the Prohibitory Clause of Section 497(1) CrPC, an accused shall not be released on bail if reasonable grounds exist connecting him with an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for 10 years, unless exceptional provisos (minor, woman, sick/infirm) apply.
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All 50 Solved Questions in Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC 1898) Loaded!
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Constitution of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan was passed by the National Assembly on 10th April 1973 and came into force on:
A
14th August 1973
✓ Correct
B
23rd March 1973
C
1st January 1974
D
16th December 1971
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The 1973 Constitution was unanimously enacted on 10 April 1973, authenticated by the President on 12 April 1973, and formally came into force on 14th August 1973.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Objectives Resolution of 1949 was made a substantive part of the Constitution of Pakistan by inserting which Article through the Revival of Constitution Order 1985 (8th Amendment)?
A
Article 2A
✓ Correct
B
Article 1
C
Article 4
D
Article 25
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 2A was inserted into the 1973 Constitution in 1985, declaring that the principles and provisions set out in the Objectives Resolution (annexed to the Constitution) are substantive parts of the Constitution and shall have effect accordingly.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 4 of the Constitution, what is described as the inalienable right of every citizen?
A
To enjoy the protection of law and to be treated in accordance with law
✓ Correct
B
To receive free tertiary higher education abroad
C
To hold multiple passports simultaneously
D
To be appointed to a civil service cadre without examination
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 4(1) states: 'To enjoy the protection of law and to be treated in accordance with law is the inalienable right of every citizen, wherever he may be, and of every other person for the time being within Pakistan.'
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Article 6 of the Constitution of Pakistan defines which high offence?
A
High Treason (abrogating, subverting, or suspending the Constitution by use of force or unconstitutional means)
✓ Correct
B
Contempt of Court
C
Defamation of Parliament
D
Bribery in public procurement
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 6 declares that any person who abrogates or subverts or suspends or holds in abeyance, or attempts or conspires to abrogate or subvert or suspend or hold in abeyance, the Constitution by use of force or show of force or by any other unconstitutional means shall be guilty of High Treason.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 8 of the Constitution, any law, custom or usage having force of law is VOID to the extent that it is inconsistent with:
A
Fundamental Rights (Articles 8 to 28)
✓ Correct
B
Principles of Policy
C
Provincial Assembly rules of procedure
D
Municipal zoning guidelines
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 8(1) lays down the cornerstone of constitutional supremacy: Any law, or any custom or usage having the force of law, in so far as it is inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights conferred by Chapter 1 of Part II, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which Article was inserted by the 18th Constitutional Amendment 2010 to guarantee the Right to Fair Trial and Due Process?
A
Article 10A
✓ Correct
B
Article 19A
C
Article 25A
D
Article 175A
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 10A guarantees: 'For the determination of his civil rights and obligations or in any criminal charge against him a person shall be entitled to a fair trial and due process.'
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Article 19A of the Constitution guarantees which fundamental right to all citizens in all matters of public importance?
A
Right to Information
✓ Correct
B
Right to Free Legal Aid
C
Right to Healthcare
D
Right to Strike
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 19A (inserted by 18th Amendment) states: 'Every citizen shall have the right to have access to information in all matters of public importance, subject to regulation and reasonable restrictions imposed by law.'
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Article 25 of the Constitution provides that all citizens are equal before law and are entitled to equal protection of law. What does Article 25(3) permit?
A
Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the protection of women and children (Affirmative action)
✓ Correct
B
Suspension of equality during general elections
C
Different income tax rates based on province of birth
D
Segregation in federal transport
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 25(3) expressly authorizes affirmative action: 'Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the protection of women and children.'
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Article 25A mandates the State to provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of:
A
Five to sixteen years
✓ Correct
B
Six to fourteen years
C
Three to twelve years
D
Seven to eighteen years
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 25A dictates: 'The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of five to sixteen years in such manner as may be determined by law.'
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 50 of the Constitution, the Parliament of Pakistan (Majlis-e-Shoora) consists of:
A
The President, the National Assembly, and the Senate
✓ Correct
B
The National Assembly and the Senate only
C
The Prime Minister, Federal Cabinet, and National Assembly
D
The Supreme Court and the National Assembly
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 50 states: 'There shall be a Majlis-e-Shoora (Parliament) of Pakistan consisting of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the National Assembly and the Senate.'
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the constitutional term of a member of the Senate of Pakistan under Article 59?
A
Six years, with half of the members retiring every three years
✓ Correct
B
Five years, dissolved simultaneously with the National Assembly
C
Four years
D
Permanent life membership
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Senate is a permanent legislative body not subject to dissolution. Under Article 59(3), the term of office of a Senator is six years, with half retiring every three years.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 73 of the Constitution, a 'Money Bill' can only originate in:
A
The National Assembly (though a copy is transmitted to Senate for recommendations)
✓ Correct
B
The Senate exclusively
C
The Federal Shariat Court
D
Joint sitting of Parliament presided by the President
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 73 dictates that a Money Bill shall originate in the National Assembly. While transmitted to the Senate for non-binding recommendations, final passage rests solely with the National Assembly.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 89 of the Constitution, an Ordinance promulgated by the President of Pakistan when Parliament is not in session has a maximum validity period of:
A
120 days (extendable once by National Assembly resolution for another 120 days)
✓ Correct
B
60 days only
C
One year
D
Indefinite period until repealed
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Article 89, a Presidential Ordinance stands repealed at the expiration of 120 days from promulgation, unless extended once for a further period of 120 days by a resolution passed by either House (or National Assembly in case of Money Bill).
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 184(3) of the Constitution, the Supreme Court of Pakistan exercises Original Jurisdiction if it considers that a question of:
A
Public importance with reference to the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights is involved
✓ Correct
B
Simple civil partition between brothers is involved
C
Tenancy eviction dispute under provincial rent laws
D
Routine police traffic fine challan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 184(3) confers suomotu and original constitutional jurisdiction on the Supreme Court if it considers that a question of public importance with reference to the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights is involved.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of Pakistan is invoked under which Article when the President refers a question of law of public importance?
A
Article 186
✓ Correct
B
Article 184
C
Article 185
D
Article 188
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 186 authorizes the President to refer any question of law of public importance to the Supreme Court for advisory opinion, which the Court considers and reports back.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 189 of the Constitution, any decision of the Supreme Court shall, to the extent that it decides a question of law or is based upon or enunciates a principle of law, be binding on:
A
All other courts in Pakistan
✓ Correct
B
Subordinate courts of Islamabad only
C
Civil courts only, but not High Courts
D
Revenue officers only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 189 declares: 'Any decision of the Supreme Court shall, to the extent that it decides a question of law or is based upon or enunciates a principle of law, be binding on all other courts in Pakistan.'
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Article 199 of the Constitution of Pakistan confers extraordinary writ jurisdiction upon the High Courts. Which writ directs a public authority to perform a statutory duty imposed upon it by law?
A
Writ of Mandamus (Article 199(1)(a)(i))
✓ Correct
B
Writ of Prohibition
C
Writ of Quo Warranto
D
Writ of Certiorari
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A writ of Mandamus ('we command') directs an authority to do that which he is required by law to do. Under Article 199(1)(a)(i), the High Court directs a person performing functions in connection with the affairs of the Federation or Province to do something he is required by law to do.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which writ under Article 199(1)(b)(ii) requires a person holding a public office to show under what authority of law he claims to hold that office?
A
Writ of Quo Warranto
✓ Correct
B
Writ of Habeas Corpus
C
Writ of Mandamus
D
Writ of Injunction
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A writ of Quo Warranto ('by what authority') challenges the lawful title of a person holding a public office, inquiring into their eligibility, qualifications, and legality of appointment.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which writ under Article 199(1)(a)(ii) quashes or declares without lawful authority an order passed by a lower tribunal or authority in excess of jurisdiction?
A
Writ of Certiorari
✓ Correct
B
Writ of Habeas Corpus
C
Writ of Quo Warranto
D
Writ of Protection
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A writ of Certiorari declares an act done or proceeding taken by a person performing public functions to have been done or taken without lawful authority and to be of no legal effect.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 203-D of the Constitution, what is the jurisdiction of the Federal Shariat Court (FSC)?
A
To examine and decide the question whether or not any law or provision of law is repugnant to the Injunctions of Islam as laid down in the Holy Quran and Sunnah
✓ Correct
B
To decide commercial arbitration between multinational corporations
C
To try maritime disputes outside territorial waters
D
To hear appeals from the Supreme Court
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 203-D empowers the Federal Shariat Court either on its own motion or upon petition to examine whether any law is repugnant to the Injunctions of Islam. If so declared, such law ceases to have effect on the date specified.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appeals against final judgments and orders of the Federal Shariat Court lie to:
A
The Shariat Appellate Bench of the Supreme Court of Pakistan (Article 203-F)
✓ Correct
B
The Council of Islamic Ideology
C
The High Court Division Bench
D
The President of Pakistan directly
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Article 203-F, any party aggrieved by a final decision of the FSC may appeal to the Supreme Court of Pakistan, where it is heard by the Shariat Appellate Bench comprising three Muslim Judges of Supreme Court and two Ulema Judges.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 209 of the Constitution, misconduct or incapacity of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is inquired into exclusively by the:
A
Supreme Judicial Council (SJC)
✓ Correct
B
Parliamentary Committee on Human Rights
C
National Accountability Bureau
D
Federal Investigation Agency
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 209 establishes the Supreme Judicial Council comprising the Chief Justice of Pakistan, two senior-most Judges of the Supreme Court, and two senior-most Chief Justices of High Courts to inquire into allegations of misconduct or incapacity of superior court judges.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 9 of the Constitution of Pakistan, 'No person shall be deprived of life or liberty save in accordance with:'
A
Law
✓ Correct
B
Discretion of the police
C
Executive directives of the Chief Minister
D
Customary local jirga verdicts
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 9 is the fundamental constitutional right to life and liberty: 'No person shall be deprived of life or liberty save in accordance with law.'
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Article 12 of the Constitution prohibits 'Retrospective Punishment'. This means:
A
No law shall authorize the punishment of a person for an act or omission that was not punishable by law at the time of the act or omission
✓ Correct
B
Punishments cannot exceed 10 years imprisonment
C
A person cannot appeal against a conviction
D
Sentences must be doubled every decade
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 12 embodies the protection against ex post facto laws: No person can be convicted of an offence for an act which was not an offence at the time it was committed, nor subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed at the time.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 13(b) of the Constitution, no person shall, when accused of an offence, be compelled to be a:
A
Witness against himself (Protection against Self-Incrimination)
✓ Correct
B
Party in a civil suit
C
Voter in local government elections
D
Taxpayer
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 13(b) guarantees the right against self-incrimination: 'No person shall, when accused of an offence, be compelled to be a witness against himself.'
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All 43 Solved Questions in Constitutional Law of Pakistan 1973 Loaded!
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
B
Political affiliations and family connections
C
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
D
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Political affiliations and family connections
B
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
C
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
D
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
B
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
C
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
D
Political affiliations and family connections
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
B
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
C
Political affiliations and family connections
D
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Political affiliations and family connections
B
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
C
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
D
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: Under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
B
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
C
Political affiliations and family connections
D
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
B
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
C
Political affiliations and family connections
D
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: Under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Political affiliations and family connections
B
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
C
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
D
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: Under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
B
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
C
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
D
Political affiliations and family connections
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: Under SECP Fit and Proper Criteria Regulations, what key criteria are evaluated for Proposed Directors and Key Executives of licensed entities?
A
Physical height and athletic sports achievements
B
Political affiliations and family connections
C
Possession of foreign citizenship exclusively
D
Integrity, honesty, financial soundness, absence of criminal convictions, professional competence, and educational qualifications
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP Fit and Proper Criteria assess integrity, track record, financial solvency, competency, and absence of regulatory defaults.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
B
To manage municipal land titling records
C
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
D
To administer national census data
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
B
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
C
To administer national census data
D
To manage municipal land titling records
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To administer national census data
B
To manage municipal land titling records
C
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
D
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To manage municipal land titling records
B
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
C
To administer national census data
D
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
B
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
C
To administer national census data
D
To manage municipal land titling records
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: Under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To administer national census data
B
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
C
To manage municipal land titling records
D
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To manage municipal land titling records
B
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
C
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
D
To administer national census data
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: Under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
B
To administer national census data
C
To manage municipal land titling records
D
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: Under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
B
To administer national census data
C
To manage municipal land titling records
D
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: Under the Modaraba Companies and Modaraba (Floatation and Control) Ordinance 1980, what is the role of the Religious Board?
A
To manage municipal land titling records
B
To examine and certify that business operations, contracts, and investment prospectuses of Modarabas are fully compliant with Islamic Shariah
✓ Correct
C
To fix interest rates for conventional banking systems
D
To administer national census data
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Religious Board constituted by the Federal Government certifies Shariah compliance for all Modaraba schemes before public flotation.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: What is a Modaraba Certificate under corporate licensing laws?
A
A temporary visitor pass issued at school security gates
B
A certificate issued for importing consumer vehicles
C
A certificate representing an undivided share in the Modaraba business floated to the public for investment
✓ Correct
D
An ordinary promissory debt note issued by an individual
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modaraba certificates represent ownership shares in a Shariah-compliant pooled business managed by a Modaraba Management Company.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, what is a Modaraba Certificate under corporate licensing laws?
A
A certificate issued for importing consumer vehicles
B
An ordinary promissory debt note issued by an individual
C
A temporary visitor pass issued at school security gates
D
A certificate representing an undivided share in the Modaraba business floated to the public for investment
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modaraba certificates represent ownership shares in a Shariah-compliant pooled business managed by a Modaraba Management Company.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: What is a Modaraba Certificate under corporate licensing laws?
A
A certificate representing an undivided share in the Modaraba business floated to the public for investment
✓ Correct
B
An ordinary promissory debt note issued by an individual
C
A temporary visitor pass issued at school security gates
D
A certificate issued for importing consumer vehicles
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modaraba certificates represent ownership shares in a Shariah-compliant pooled business managed by a Modaraba Management Company.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: What is a Modaraba Certificate under corporate licensing laws?
A
A temporary visitor pass issued at school security gates
B
A certificate representing an undivided share in the Modaraba business floated to the public for investment
✓ Correct
C
A certificate issued for importing consumer vehicles
D
An ordinary promissory debt note issued by an individual
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modaraba certificates represent ownership shares in a Shariah-compliant pooled business managed by a Modaraba Management Company.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, what is a Modaraba Certificate under corporate licensing laws?
A
A certificate issued for importing consumer vehicles
B
An ordinary promissory debt note issued by an individual
C
A certificate representing an undivided share in the Modaraba business floated to the public for investment
✓ Correct
D
A temporary visitor pass issued at school security gates
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modaraba certificates represent ownership shares in a Shariah-compliant pooled business managed by a Modaraba Management Company.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 50 Questions (50%)
Jump to:
🎉
All 50 Solved Questions in Corporate Licensing, Modaraba & Fit and Proper Criteria Loaded!
You have studied the complete question pool with step-by-step rationales. Ready to test yourself?
Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
B
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
C
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
D
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
B
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
C
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
D
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
B
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
C
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
D
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
B
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
C
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
D
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
B
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
C
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
D
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
B
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
C
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
D
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
B
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
C
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
D
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
B
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
C
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
D
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
B
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
C
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
D
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, who is the apex licensing and regulatory supervisor for Life and Non-Life (General) Insurance companies in Pakistan?
A
State Bank of Pakistan (SBP)
B
Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP)
✓ Correct
C
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
D
Pakistan Medical & Dental Council (PMDC)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SECP is the statutory apex supervisory and licensing authority for all life, non-life, and Takaful insurance companies in Pakistan.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
B
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
C
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
D
To negotiate real estate office rentals
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
B
To negotiate real estate office rentals
C
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
D
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
B
To negotiate real estate office rentals
C
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
D
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
B
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
C
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
D
To negotiate real estate office rentals
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
B
To negotiate real estate office rentals
C
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
D
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To negotiate real estate office rentals
B
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
C
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
D
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
B
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
C
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
D
To negotiate real estate office rentals
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
B
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
C
To negotiate real estate office rentals
D
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To negotiate real estate office rentals
B
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
C
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
D
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: Under the Insurance Ordinance 2000, what is the statutory role of an Appointed Actuary in a life insurance company?
A
To design marketing logos for sales campaigns
B
To manage staff cafeteria and office hospitality
C
To negotiate real estate office rentals
D
To evaluate mathematical policy reserves, assess solvency margins, calculate premium rates, and certify actuarial valuations
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Appointed Actuary is a statutory officer responsible for mathematical reserves, underwriting solvency, and financial safety of policyholders.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: What is the function of the Statutory Policyholders Fund under the Insurance Ordinance 2000?
A
To maintain separate assets dedicated exclusively to meeting claims and obligations of life insurance policyholders
✓ Correct
B
To fund annual luxury retreats for company shareholders
C
To invest in speculative unregulated offshore crypto markets
D
To pay for external legal defense of non-insurance disputes
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The statutory fund segregates policyholder assets from shareholder capital to guarantee claim payment solvency.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, what is the function of the Statutory Policyholders Fund under the Insurance Ordinance 2000?
A
To invest in speculative unregulated offshore crypto markets
B
To maintain separate assets dedicated exclusively to meeting claims and obligations of life insurance policyholders
✓ Correct
C
To pay for external legal defense of non-insurance disputes
D
To fund annual luxury retreats for company shareholders
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The statutory fund segregates policyholder assets from shareholder capital to guarantee claim payment solvency.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: What is the function of the Statutory Policyholders Fund under the Insurance Ordinance 2000?
A
To pay for external legal defense of non-insurance disputes
B
To fund annual luxury retreats for company shareholders
C
To maintain separate assets dedicated exclusively to meeting claims and obligations of life insurance policyholders
✓ Correct
D
To invest in speculative unregulated offshore crypto markets
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The statutory fund segregates policyholder assets from shareholder capital to guarantee claim payment solvency.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: What is the function of the Statutory Policyholders Fund under the Insurance Ordinance 2000?
A
To fund annual luxury retreats for company shareholders
B
To invest in speculative unregulated offshore crypto markets
C
To pay for external legal defense of non-insurance disputes
D
To maintain separate assets dedicated exclusively to meeting claims and obligations of life insurance policyholders
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The statutory fund segregates policyholder assets from shareholder capital to guarantee claim payment solvency.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, what is the function of the Statutory Policyholders Fund under the Insurance Ordinance 2000?
A
To maintain separate assets dedicated exclusively to meeting claims and obligations of life insurance policyholders
✓ Correct
B
To invest in speculative unregulated offshore crypto markets
C
To pay for external legal defense of non-insurance disputes
D
To fund annual luxury retreats for company shareholders
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The statutory fund segregates policyholder assets from shareholder capital to guarantee claim payment solvency.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 50 Questions (50%)
Jump to:
🎉
All 50 Solved Questions in Insurance Ordinance 2000 & Insurance Rules Loaded!
You have studied the complete question pool with step-by-step rationales. Ready to test yourself?
Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Commercial retail currency printing presses
B
Federal government postal services
C
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
D
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Federal government postal services
B
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
C
Commercial retail currency printing presses
D
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
B
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
C
Commercial retail currency printing presses
D
Federal government postal services
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Commercial retail currency printing presses
B
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
C
Federal government postal services
D
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Federal government postal services
B
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
C
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
D
Commercial retail currency printing presses
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: Under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
B
Commercial retail currency printing presses
C
Federal government postal services
D
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
B
Commercial retail currency printing presses
C
Federal government postal services
D
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: Under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Federal government postal services
B
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
C
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
D
Commercial retail currency printing presses
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: Under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
B
Commercial retail currency printing presses
C
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
D
Federal government postal services
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: Under the Non-Banking Finance Companies (Establishment and Regulation) Rules 2003, which financial businesses qualify as an NBFC?
A
Commercial retail currency printing presses
B
Federal government postal services
C
Public utility water and electricity distribution companies
D
Asset Management Companies, Investment Advisory, Leasing, Housing Finance, Investment Finance, and Microfinance
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFCs encompass non-banking entities licensed for asset management, leasing, investment banking, housing finance, and microfinance.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
B
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
C
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
D
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
B
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
C
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
D
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
B
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
C
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
D
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
B
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
C
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
D
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
B
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
C
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
D
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: Under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
B
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
C
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
D
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
B
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
C
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
D
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: Under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
B
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
C
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
D
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: Under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
B
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
C
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
D
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: Under NBFC Regulations 2008, what is the two-tier regulatory process required to operate an NBFC in Pakistan?
A
Simply registering a business trade name with the local chamber of commerce
B
First obtaining permission to incorporate the company, and subsequently obtaining a formal License from SECP to conduct specified business
✓ Correct
C
Filing a single income tax return with FBR without SECP authorization
D
Obtaining a trade permit from local district administration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC licensing requires formal initial incorporation permission followed by fulfilling capital/governance conditions to receive a business license.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: What is the minimum Capital Adequacy / Equity Requirement enforced by SECP on licensed Asset Management Companies (AMCs)?
A
PKR 10,000 in petty cash
B
No equity or capital requirements are imposed by SECP
C
Maintaining minimum paid-up capital as prescribed under NBFC Regulations 2008 (e.g., PKR 200 Million or more for AMCs)
✓ Correct
D
Having zero capital but high social media followers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC Regulations enforce stringent minimum equity requirements to ensure solvency, liquidity, and protection of unit holders.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, what is the minimum Capital Adequacy / Equity Requirement enforced by SECP on licensed Asset Management Companies (AMCs)?
A
No equity or capital requirements are imposed by SECP
B
Having zero capital but high social media followers
C
PKR 10,000 in petty cash
D
Maintaining minimum paid-up capital as prescribed under NBFC Regulations 2008 (e.g., PKR 200 Million or more for AMCs)
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC Regulations enforce stringent minimum equity requirements to ensure solvency, liquidity, and protection of unit holders.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: What is the minimum Capital Adequacy / Equity Requirement enforced by SECP on licensed Asset Management Companies (AMCs)?
A
Maintaining minimum paid-up capital as prescribed under NBFC Regulations 2008 (e.g., PKR 200 Million or more for AMCs)
✓ Correct
B
Having zero capital but high social media followers
C
PKR 10,000 in petty cash
D
No equity or capital requirements are imposed by SECP
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC Regulations enforce stringent minimum equity requirements to ensure solvency, liquidity, and protection of unit holders.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: What is the minimum Capital Adequacy / Equity Requirement enforced by SECP on licensed Asset Management Companies (AMCs)?
A
PKR 10,000 in petty cash
B
Maintaining minimum paid-up capital as prescribed under NBFC Regulations 2008 (e.g., PKR 200 Million or more for AMCs)
✓ Correct
C
No equity or capital requirements are imposed by SECP
D
Having zero capital but high social media followers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC Regulations enforce stringent minimum equity requirements to ensure solvency, liquidity, and protection of unit holders.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, what is the minimum Capital Adequacy / Equity Requirement enforced by SECP on licensed Asset Management Companies (AMCs)?
A
No equity or capital requirements are imposed by SECP
B
Having zero capital but high social media followers
C
Maintaining minimum paid-up capital as prescribed under NBFC Regulations 2008 (e.g., PKR 200 Million or more for AMCs)
✓ Correct
D
PKR 10,000 in petty cash
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NBFC Regulations enforce stringent minimum equity requirements to ensure solvency, liquidity, and protection of unit holders.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 50 Questions (50%)
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All 50 Solved Questions in NBFC Rules 2003 & Regulations 2008 Loaded!
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 40 of the Pakistan Penal Code 1860, the word 'offence' denotes:
A
A thing made punishable by the Pakistan Penal Code or under any special or local law
✓ Correct
B
Only acts involving physical violence against another person
C
Any breach of a civil contract punishable by damages
D
Any moral wrong condemned by society
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 40 of PPC defines 'offence' as a thing made punishable by the Code, or under any special or local law as specified in the section.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 82 of the Pakistan Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
A
Seven years of age
✓ Correct
B
Ten years of age
C
Twelve years of age
D
Fourteen years of age
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 82 of PPC embodies the doctrine of absolute doli incapax: 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.' (Amended to 10 years in some provincial juvenile statutes, but under core PPC Sec 82 it remains 7 years).
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Section 84 of the PPC incorporates the McNaghten Rules regarding which defence?
A
Infancy
B
Act of a person of unsound mind (Insanity)
✓ Correct
C
Involuntary intoxication
D
Right of private defence
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 84 provides legal insanity: 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.'
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 96 to 106 of the PPC, the right of private defence of body extends to causing death in which of the following circumstances?
A
An assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt
B
An assault with the intention of committing rape or gratifying unnatural lust
C
An assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 100 of PPC, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death if the assault reasonably causes apprehension of death, grievous hurt, rape, unnatural lust, kidnapping/abducting, or wrongful confinement.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 99 of the PPC, there is NO right of private defence against an act:
A
Done by a private citizen in self defence
B
Done or attempted by a public servant acting in good faith under colour of his office, though not strictly justifiable by law
✓ Correct
C
Committed during nighttime
D
Involving property valued below Rs. 10,000
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 99 lays down acts against which there is no right of private defence, including acts done or attempted by a public servant acting in good faith under colour of office (provided it does not cause reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt), and where there is time to have recourse to public authorities.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Criminal Conspiracy is defined under which section of the Pakistan Penal Code?
A
Section 120-A
✓ Correct
B
Section 121
C
Section 107
D
Section 141
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 120-A defines Criminal Conspiracy: When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 141 of the PPC, an assembly of how many persons is designated an 'Unlawful Assembly'?
A
Three or more persons
B
Five or more persons
✓ Correct
C
Seven or more persons
D
Ten or more persons
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 141 defines an Unlawful Assembly as an assembly of five or more persons whose common object is one of the five specified illegal objects (e.g. overawing government, resisting legal process, committing mischief/trespass).
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the key principle established in Section 149 of the PPC regarding constructive liability?
A
Every member of an unlawful assembly is guilty of an offence committed in prosecution of common object
✓ Correct
B
Only the leader of the assembly is held liable
C
Members are only liable for civil damages
D
Liability arises only if an active weapon is fired
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 149 PPC provides for constructive liability: If an offence is committed by any member of an unlawful assembly in prosecution of the common object, or such as the members knew to be likely, every person who at the time is a member is guilty of that offence.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 34 of the PPC, criminal liability is based on acts done by several persons in furtherance of:
A
Common object
B
Common intention
✓ Correct
C
Independent motives
D
Similar knowledge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 34 states: 'When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.'
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under the Islamic provisions (Qisas & Diyat) of the PPC, 'Qatl-i-Amd' (intentional murder) is defined under which section?
A
Section 300
✓ Correct
B
Section 302
C
Section 315
D
Section 318
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 300 PPC defines Qatl-i-Amd: Whoever, with the intention of causing death or with the intention of causing bodily injury likely to cause death, causes the death of that person, commits Qatl-i-Amd. Punishment is provided in Section 302.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the punishment prescribed under Section 302(a) of the PPC for Qatl-i-Amd when the proof meets the requirements of Tazkiya-al-Shahood?
A
Imprisonment for life
B
Death as Qisas
✓ Correct
C
Fine of Rs. 1,000,000 only
D
Banishment from the province
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 302(a) PPC, whoever commits Qatl-i-Amd shall be punished with death as Qisas if the proof complies with the Islamic standards of evidence under Article 17 of the QSO.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 315 of the PPC, 'Qatl Shibh-i-Amd' refers to:
A
Murder by mistake of act or mistake of fact
B
Whoever, with intent to cause harm to body or mind, causes death by means of a weapon or act which in ordinary course of nature is NOT likely to cause death
✓ Correct
C
Death caused by rash or negligent driving
D
Premeditated murder with a firearm
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 315 defines Qatl Shibh-i-Amd: Whoever with intent to cause bodily harm causes death using a means or weapon not likely to cause death in the ordinary course of nature. Punishment is Diyat and imprisonment up to 25 years as Ta'zir.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 318 of the PPC, 'Qatl-i-Khata' (homicide by mistake/accident) occurs when death is caused without intention by:
A
Mistake of act or mistake of fact
✓ Correct
B
Poisoning
C
Conspiracy with others
D
Armed robbery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 318 defines Qatl-i-Khata: Whoever, without any intention to cause death or cause harm to a person, causes the death of such person, either by mistake of act or by mistake of fact. Punishment is Diyat.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the minimum statutory value of 'Diyat' under Section 323 of the Pakistan Penal Code?
A
The equivalent of 30,630 grams of silver
✓ Correct
B
The equivalent of 1,000 grams of gold
C
A fixed amount of Rs. 500,000
D
The equivalent of 10 camels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 323(1) PPC states that the Federal Government shall declare the value of Diyat on the first day of July each year, which shall not be less than the value of 30,630 grams of silver.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 332 of the PPC, hurt caused to the human body is classified into four main categories. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A
Itlaf-i-Udw
B
Itlaf-i-Salahiyyat-i-Udw
C
Shajjah and Jurh
D
Grievous Breach
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 332 defines five kinds of hurt: (a) Itlaf-i-udw (amputation), (b) Itlaf-i-salahiyyat-i-udw (destroying function), (c) Shajjah (hurt on head or face), (d) Jurh (hurt on body other than head/face), and (e) all other hurts.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 337 of the PPC, 'Shajjah' is a hurt inflicted specifically on which part of the body?
A
Head or face
✓ Correct
B
Chest and abdomen
C
Legs and arms
D
Spinal cord only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 337 defines Shajjah as hurt caused by any person on the head or face of any person, which does not amount to Itlaf-i-udw or Itlaf-i-salahiyyat-i-udw. It is divided into six degrees (Khafifah, Mudihah, Hashimah, Munaqqilah, Ammah, Damighah).
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What type of Jurh (wound) extends into the cavity of the trunk (chest or abdomen) under Section 337-C PPC?
A
Jurh Jaifah
✓ Correct
B
Jurh Ghayr-Jaifah
C
Shajjah Mudihah
D
Shajjah Damighah
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 337-C, Jurh is of two kinds: (a) Jaifah (a wound that penetrates into the body cavity of the trunk), and (b) Ghayr-Jaifah (does not penetrate into a body cavity).
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 378 of the PPC, the essential elements of 'Theft' require moving:
A
Movable property out of the possession of any person without consent, dishonestly
✓ Correct
B
Immovable property by demolishing boundary walls
C
Property with the owner's express consent under mistaken belief
D
Property from an abandoned public park
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 378 PPC requires: (1) Dishonest intention to take, (2) Movable property, (3) Out of the possession of any person, (4) Without that person's consent, and (5) Moving that property in order to such taking.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The offence of 'Extortion' under Section 383 of the PPC differs from theft primarily because:
A
Extortion involves inducing the person to deliver property by intentionally putting them in fear of injury
✓ Correct
B
Extortion can only be committed by public servants
C
Extortion does not require dishonest intention
D
Extortion requires five or more accused persons
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 383 PPC defines Extortion: Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person or to any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver any property or valuable security, commits extortion.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 390 of the PPC, when does Theft or Extortion become 'Robbery'?
A
When property stolen exceeds Rs. 100,000
B
When the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause death, hurt, or wrongful restraint (or fear of instant death/hurt/restraint)
✓ Correct
C
When committed after sunset and before sunrise
D
When committed by a registered criminal gang
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 390 PPC provides that theft is robbery if, in order to committing theft, or in carrying away stolen property, the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause death, hurt, or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death, hurt, or wrongful restraint.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 391 of the PPC, how many persons are required to conjointly commit or attempt to commit an offence for it to constitute 'Dacoity'?
A
Three or more persons
B
Four or more persons
C
Five or more persons
✓ Correct
D
Ten or more persons
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 391 PPC defines Dacoity: 'When five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery, or where the whole number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit a robbery... amount to five or more, every person so committing... is said to commit dacoity.'
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Criminal Breach of Trust is defined under which section of the Pakistan Penal Code?
A
Section 403
B
Section 405
✓ Correct
C
Section 415
D
Section 420
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 405 PPC defines Criminal Breach of Trust: Whoever, being entrusted with property or dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, commits criminal breach of trust. Section 406 provides the punishment.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The offence of 'Cheating' is defined under which section of the PPC?
A
Section 415
✓ Correct
B
Section 420
C
Section 409
D
Section 463
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 415 PPC defines Cheating: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person to deliver any property. Section 420 provides the punishment for cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 425 of the PPC, 'Mischief' involves:
A
Causing wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person by destroying or diminishing the value of property
✓ Correct
B
Trespassing onto agricultural lands at night
C
Stealing domestic cattle
D
Falsifying academic credentials
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 425 PPC defines Mischief: Whoever with intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person, causes the destruction of any property, or any change that diminishes its value or utility.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What constitutes 'Criminal Trespass' under Section 441 of the PPC?
A
Entering into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy
✓ Correct
B
Entering a public building during business hours
C
Passing through an unfenced barren desert
D
Walking along a designated public right of way
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 441 PPC requires entering property in another's possession with intent to commit an offence or intimidate, insult, or annoy, or lawfully entering but unlawfully remaining with such intent.
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 was promulgated on 28th October 1984 to replace which colonial statute?
A
The Evidence Act 1872
✓ Correct
B
The Criminal Procedure Code 1861
C
The Indian Penal Code 1860
D
The Civil Court Ordinance 1887
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 (President's Order No. 10 of 1984) repealed and replaced the Evidence Act of 1872 to bring the law of evidence in conformity with the Injunctions of Islam as laid down in the Holy Quran and Sunnah.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 3 of the Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984, who is competent to testify?
A
All persons who understand the questions put to them and can give rational answers, unless prevented by tender years, extreme old age, or disease of body or mind
✓ Correct
B
Only male citizens above the age of 21 years
C
Only persons holding valid academic degrees
D
Only individuals who have never been accused of any civil or criminal offence
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 3 QSO establishes that all persons shall be competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are prevented from understanding the questions put to them, or from giving rational answers by reason of tender years, extreme old age, disease, or any other cause of the same kind, provided that in Hudood cases the competency shall be determined in accordance with the qualifications prescribed by the Injunctions of Islam (Tazkiya-al-Shahood).
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 3 of the QSO, a person who has been convicted by a court for perjury (giving false evidence) is:
A
Competent to testify if the court is satisfied that he has repented and mended his ways
✓ Correct
B
Permanently disqualified from ever testifying in any court under any circumstance
C
Competent to testify only in civil matters
D
Competent only if permitted by the provincial government
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The second proviso to Article 3 QSO states that a person who has been convicted by a court for perjury or giving false evidence shall not be competent to testify, provided that this shall not apply to a person who has repented and mended his ways.
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 4 of the QSO, can a Judge or Magistrate be compelled to answer any questions as to his own conduct in court as such Judge or Magistrate?
A
No, except upon the special order of some Court to which he is subordinate
✓ Correct
B
Yes, on simple summons by the police
C
Yes, during routine cross-examination by any advocate
D
Only if requested by the complainant in writing
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 4 QSO grants judicial privilege: No Judge or Magistrate shall, except upon the special order of some Court to which he is subordinate, be compelled to answer any questions as to his own conduct in Court, but he may be examined as to other matters which occurred in his presence while he was so acting.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Article 5 of the QSO protects communications during marriage. A husband or wife:
A
Shall not be permitted to disclose any communication made to him or her during marriage by any person to whom he or she is or has been married, without consent of that person
✓ Correct
B
Can freely disclose all private pillow-talk without consent
C
Can be compelled to testify against their spouse in tax disputes
D
Loses all privilege upon filing for divorce
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 5 QSO protects marital privilege: No person who is or has been married shall be compelled to disclose, or permitted to disclose without the spouse's consent, any communication made during marriage, except in suits between married persons or criminal proceedings for offences against each other.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 9 of the QSO, professional communication between an advocate and his client is privileged and cannot be disclosed unless:
A
Made in furtherance of any illegal purpose, or if the advocate observes any crime or fraud committed since the commencement of his employment
✓ Correct
B
The fee of the advocate is unpaid
C
The client is acquitted
D
Requested by an investigating police officer
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 9 QSO confers legal professional privilege, but expressly excepts: (1) Any communication made in furtherance of any illegal purpose, and (2) Any fact showing that any crime or fraud has been committed since the commencement of the employment.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Article 16 of the QSO, an 'Accomplice' is:
A
A competent witness against an accused person; and a conviction is not illegal merely because it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice (except in Hudood offences)
✓ Correct
B
Completely incompetent to testify under all laws
C
Treated as the primary accused and cannot be called as a witness
D
Exempt from oath
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 16 QSO provides that an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person except in offences punishable with Hadood. Note that under Article 129 illustration (b), the court may presume that an accomplice is unworthy of credit unless corroborated in material particulars.
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Article 17 of the QSO specifies the competence and number of witnesses. In financial or future obligation matters, the required attestation is:
A
Two men, or one man and two women, so that if one woman forgets, the other may remind her
✓ Correct
B
Four women only
C
One male witness regardless of qualification
D
Three adult persons of either gender
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 17(1)(a) QSO, in accordance with Surah Al-Baqarah (verse 282), mandates that in matters pertaining to financial or future obligations, the instrument shall be attested by two men, or one man and two women.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 30 of the QSO, an 'Admission' is defined as:
A
A statement, oral or documentary, which suggests any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact
✓ Correct
B
A statement confessing guilt before a police officer
C
A pleading signed by an advocate in a criminal revision
D
A dying declaration recorded by a medical officer
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 30 QSO defines an admission as a statement, oral or documentary, which suggests any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, and which is made by any of the persons and under the circumstances mentioned in the Order.
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the general rule regarding admissions under Article 34 of the QSO?
A
Admissions are relevant and may be proved as against the person who makes them, but cannot be proved by or on behalf of the person who made them (subject to exceptions)
✓ Correct
B
Admissions can always be proved by the maker in his own favour
C
Admissions can only be proved against minors
D
Admissions are irrelevant in civil suits
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 34 QSO establishes that admissions are relevant and may be proved as against the person who makes them, but cannot be proved by or on behalf of the person who makes them, except under specific circumstances (e.g. state of body/mind, or if maker were dead).
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 37 of the QSO, a confession made by an accused person to a police officer:
A
Shall NOT be proved as against a person accused of any offence
✓ Correct
B
Is substantive evidence carrying the highest evidentiary weight
C
Is admissible if signed by two witnesses
D
Is admissible if recorded on video
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 37 QSO lays down the strict exclusionary rule: 'No confession made to a police officer shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence.'
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 38 of the QSO, a confession made by any person whilst in the custody of a police officer is inadmissible unless:
A
It is made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate
✓ Correct
B
The accused is represented by a senior advocate
C
It relates to a civil property dispute
D
The police station SHO certifies it
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 38 QSO provides that no confession made by any person while he is in the custody of a police officer, unless it be made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate, shall be proved as against such person.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Article 40 of the QSO is a vital exception to Articles 37 and 38. It allows proof of information received from an accused in police custody:
A
So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered
✓ Correct
B
The entire narrative confession verbatim
C
Past criminal records of the accused's relatives
D
Hearsay rumors from local villagers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 40 QSO (doctrine of confirmation by subsequent recovery) provides that when any fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from an accused in police custody, so much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, may be proved.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 46(1) of the QSO, a statement made by a person as to the cause of his death or circumstances resulting in his death (Dying Declaration) is admissible when:
A
The person making the statement is dead, and the cause of that person's death comes into question
✓ Correct
B
The person survived and is present in court
C
The person refused to swear on oath
D
The statement was notarized in a foreign country
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 46(1) QSO renders dying declarations relevant: Statements, written or verbal, of relevant facts made by a person who is dead, when the statement is made as to the cause of his death, or as to any of the circumstances of the transaction which resulted in his death.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 73 of the QSO, 'Primary Evidence' means:
A
The document itself produced for the inspection of the Court
✓ Correct
B
Certified copies of the document
C
Photocopies authenticated by a gazetted officer
D
Oral accounts of the contents of a document
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 73 QSO defines Primary Evidence as the document itself produced for the inspection of the Court.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 74 of the QSO, 'Secondary Evidence' includes:
A
Certified copies, copies made from original by mechanical processes, counterparts of documents, and oral accounts of contents given by someone who has seen it
✓ Correct
B
Only original hand-written deeds
C
Only documents executed outside Pakistan
D
Unsigned draft notes
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 74 QSO defines secondary evidence to include certified copies, copies made from the original by mechanical processes ensuring accuracy, counterparts as against parties who did not execute them, and oral accounts by persons who have seen the original.
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 76 of the QSO, secondary evidence may be given of the existence, condition, or contents of a document when:
A
The original is shown or appears to be in the possession or power of the person against whom the document is sought to be proved, or has been lost or destroyed
✓ Correct
B
The original is kept in the party's own safe at home
C
The advocate forgets to bring the original file
D
The court fees have not been paid
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 76 QSO specifies seven distinct situations where secondary evidence is admissible, prominently including when the original is in the possession of the adverse party, or has been lost or destroyed, or is a public document.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 85 of the QSO, which of the following is a 'Public Document'?
A
Documents forming the acts or records of the acts of the sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, and public officers
✓ Correct
B
A private will executed at home
C
A confidential diary of a businessman
D
A private loan contract between two neighbours
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 85 QSO defines public documents as documents forming the acts or records of the acts of sovereign authority, official bodies, tribunals, legislative, judicial and executive officers, and public records kept of private documents. All other documents are private (Art 86).
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 114 of the QSO, the doctrine of 'Estoppel' means:
A
When one person has, by his declaration, act or omission, intentionally caused another person to believe a thing to be true and to act upon such belief, neither he nor his representative shall be allowed to deny the truth of that thing
✓ Correct
B
A judge is stopped from giving an oral judgment
C
An accused cannot be arrested twice on the same charge
D
A public officer cannot be transferred before three years
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 114 QSO embodies the equitable doctrine of estoppel: A person cannot blow hot and cold (allegans contraria non est audiendus); having induced another to alter their position based on a representation, they cannot subsequently deny that representation.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 117 of the QSO, who bears the 'Burden of Proof' in a legal proceeding?
A
Whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts
✓ Correct
B
Always the respondent/defendant
C
Always the presiding judge
D
The police station clerk
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 117 QSO states: 'Whoever desires any Court to give judgment as to any legal right or liability dependent on the existence of facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist.'
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In criminal trials in Pakistan, what is the standard of proof required to establish guilt of the accused?
A
Proof beyond reasonable doubt
✓ Correct
B
Preponderance of probabilities
C
Prima facie suspicion only
D
Scintilla of evidence
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In criminal cases, the prosecution must establish the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt. In civil cases, the standard is preponderance of probabilities.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 128 of the QSO, birth during marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy if born during the continuance of valid marriage or within:
A
Two years after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried)
✓ Correct
B
Six months after its dissolution
C
280 days after its dissolution
D
Ten lunar months
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 128 QSO provides that a person born during the continuance of a valid marriage, or within two years after its dissolution (the mother remaining unmarried), is conclusive proof of legitimacy, unless husband shows non-access or disowns by Lian.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 132 of the QSO, what is the chronological order of examination of a witness?
A
Examination-in-chief, Cross-examination, Re-examination
✓ Correct
B
Cross-examination, Examination-in-chief, Re-examination
C
Re-examination, Cross-examination, Examination-in-chief
D
Judicial interrogation followed by jury vote
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 132 QSO prescribes the order of examinations: The examination of a witness by the party who calls him is examination-in-chief; by the adverse party is cross-examination; and subsequent examination by calling party is re-examination.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 136 of the QSO, a 'Leading Question' is defined as:
A
Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive
✓ Correct
B
Any question posed by the Chief Justice
C
A question concerning the personal character of an advocate
D
A question that cannot be answered in writing
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 136 QSO defines leading questions: Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to receive is called a leading question.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 137 and 138 of the QSO, when may leading questions NOT be asked, and when MAY they be asked?
A
Must NOT be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination without permission of Court, but MAY freely be asked in cross-examination
✓ Correct
B
Can never be asked in cross-examination
C
Can only be asked during examination-in-chief
D
Can only be asked by the police
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Articles 137 and 138 QSO dictate that leading questions must not, if objected to by adverse party, be asked in examination-in-chief or re-examination except with permission of the court (for introductory/undisputed matters), but they may freely be asked in cross-examination.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 25 Questions (100%)
🎉
All 25 Solved Questions in Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 Loaded!
You have studied the complete question pool with step-by-step rationales. Ready to test yourself?
Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
B
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
C
To operate national defense communication towers
D
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To operate national defense communication towers
B
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
C
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
D
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
B
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
C
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
D
To operate national defense communication towers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
B
To operate national defense communication towers
C
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
D
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
B
To operate national defense communication towers
C
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
D
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: Under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
B
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
C
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
D
To operate national defense communication towers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
B
To operate national defense communication towers
C
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
D
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: Under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To operate national defense communication towers
B
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
C
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
D
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: Under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
B
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
C
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
D
To operate national defense communication towers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: Under the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan Act 1997, what is the primary regulatory objective of the Commission?
A
To manage federal tax collections for the Federal Board of Revenue
B
To regulate capital markets, supervise corporate entities, protect investor interests, and ensure financial stability
✓ Correct
C
To operate national defense communication towers
D
To construct public highways and transport infrastructure
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The SECP Act 1997 establishes SECP as the apex regulator for capital markets, corporate sector, insurance, and NBFCs.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: What is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
B
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
C
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
D
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, what is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
B
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
C
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
D
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: What is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
B
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
C
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
D
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: What is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
B
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
C
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
D
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, what is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
B
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
C
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
D
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In commercial insurance regulation and Shariah Takaful governance: What is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
B
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
C
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
D
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Which statutory provision applies when determining: what is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
B
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
C
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
D
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
During fit and proper scrutiny of prospective corporate sponsors: What is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
B
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
C
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
D
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under Modaraba and corporate restructuring legal frameworks: What is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
B
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
C
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
D
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
In regulatory enforcement and appellate jurisprudence: What is the composition and appellate jurisdiction of the SECP Appellate Bench under Section 33 of the SECP Act 1997?
A
A bench of district civil judges appointed by the local municipality
B
A committee of private business owners without statutory authority
C
An advisory council with no binding judicial powers
D
A bench of Commissioners that hears appeals against any decision or order made by an individual Commissioner or SECP officer
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 33 provides a statutory internal appellate mechanism where an aggrieved party can appeal to the SECP Appellate Bench.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Under SECP regulatory law: Under Section 34 of the SECP Act 1997, to which judicial forum does an appeal lie against an order of the SECP Appellate Bench?
A
The High Court having territorial jurisdiction
✓ Correct
B
The District Sessions Court
C
The local Police Magistrate
D
The Federal Ombudsman exclusively
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An appeal against a final order of the SECP Appellate Bench lies directly to the High Court of the respective province/territory.
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
In the context of financial institutions and corporate licensing, under Section 34 of the SECP Act 1997, to which judicial forum does an appeal lie against an order of the SECP Appellate Bench?
A
The local Police Magistrate
B
The High Court having territorial jurisdiction
✓ Correct
C
The Federal Ombudsman exclusively
D
The District Sessions Court
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An appeal against a final order of the SECP Appellate Bench lies directly to the High Court of the respective province/territory.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
An SECP Licensing Division officer evaluating an application considers: Under Section 34 of the SECP Act 1997, to which judicial forum does an appeal lie against an order of the SECP Appellate Bench?
A
The Federal Ombudsman exclusively
B
The District Sessions Court
C
The High Court having territorial jurisdiction
✓ Correct
D
The local Police Magistrate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An appeal against a final order of the SECP Appellate Bench lies directly to the High Court of the respective province/territory.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: hard
(1 Mark)
Under the SECP Act 1997 and statutory rules: Under Section 34 of the SECP Act 1997, to which judicial forum does an appeal lie against an order of the SECP Appellate Bench?
A
The District Sessions Court
B
The local Police Magistrate
C
The Federal Ombudsman exclusively
D
The High Court having territorial jurisdiction
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An appeal against a final order of the SECP Appellate Bench lies directly to the High Court of the respective province/territory.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: medium
(1 Mark)
Regarding non-banking financial institutions and regulatory supervision, under Section 34 of the SECP Act 1997, to which judicial forum does an appeal lie against an order of the SECP Appellate Bench?
A
The High Court having territorial jurisdiction
✓ Correct
B
The local Police Magistrate
C
The Federal Ombudsman exclusively
D
The District Sessions Court
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An appeal against a final order of the SECP Appellate Bench lies directly to the High Court of the respective province/territory.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 50 Questions (50%)
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All 50 Solved Questions in SECP Act 1997 & Regulatory Adjudication Loaded!
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act 1877, a person dispossessed of immovable property without his consent otherwise than in due course of law may recover possession:
A
By suit brought within six months from the date of dispossession, without establishing title
✓ Correct
B
Only if he proves absolute registered title going back 30 years
C
Within 12 years by filing partition suit
D
Only after the police complete criminal proceedings
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act 1877 provides a summary remedy: Any person dispossessed without consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law may, within six months of dispossession, recover possession by suit, regardless of any other title that may be set up.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 42 of the Specific Relief Act 1877, a suit for 'Declaration' may be instituted by any person entitled to:
A
Any legal character, or to any right as to any property, against any person denying or interested to deny his title
✓ Correct
B
A state pension without retirement
C
Damages for breach of warranty in sale of goods
D
Bail in a murder trial
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 42 Specific Relief Act provides that any person entitled to any legal character, or to any right as to any property, may institute a suit against any person denying, or interested to deny, his title, and the court may in its discretion make a declaration.
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 73 of the Contract Act 1872, compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract is payable for loss:
A
Which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew when making the contract to be likely to result (Hadley v Baxendale rule)
✓ Correct
B
For any remote or indirect damage whatsoever
C
Equal to three times the total value of the contract
D
Only if the defaulting party is convicted of criminal fraud
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 73 Contract Act adopts the common law rule in Hadley v. Baxendale: Compensation is recoverable for loss which naturally arose in the usual course of things from breach, or which was in contemplation of parties; compensation is not given for remote and indirect loss.
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act 1877, specific performance of any contract may in the discretion of the Court be enforced when:
A
There exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non-performance of the act agreed to be done, or when pecuniary compensation would not afford adequate relief
✓ Correct
B
The contract is purely for personal service, like painting a portrait
C
The subject matter of the contract is an ordinary agricultural commodity available in the open market
D
The contract is determinable at the will of either party
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 12 of Specific Relief Act lays down four contracts that may be specifically enforced, notably when there exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage or where pecuniary compensation would not afford adequate relief (e.g. contracts for sale of unique immovable property).
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, which of the following contracts CANNOT be specifically enforced?
A
A contract for the non-performance of which compensation in money is an adequate relief, or a contract which is so dependent on the personal qualifications or volition of the parties that the Court cannot enforce its material terms
✓ Correct
B
A contract for the sale of a specific residential house
C
A contract for the transfer of shares in a private limited company
D
A registered lease of commercial premises
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Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 21 of Specific Relief Act lists contracts not specifically enforceable: contracts where compensation is adequate relief, contracts involving personal skills/volition, contracts running into minute details, contracts in their nature determinable, and contracts made by trustees in breach of trust.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 53 of the Specific Relief Act 1877, a 'Perpetual Injunction' can only be granted by:
A
The decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit
✓ Correct
B
An ex parte interim application before issuance of summons
C
A police order under Section 144 CrPC
D
A local council arbitration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 53 Specific Relief Act distinguishes: Temporary injunctions are regulated by the CPC (Order XXXIX) and may be granted at any period of a suit; a perpetual injunction can only be granted by the decree made at the hearing and upon the merits of the suit.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 10 of the Contract Act 1872, all agreements are contracts if they are made by:
A
The free consent of parties competent to contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not hereby expressly declared to be void
✓ Correct
B
Minors under 10 years of age
C
Oral understanding without consideration
D
Persons of unsound mind during a lucid interval without witnesses
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 10 Contract Act lays down the foundational essentials of a contract: (1) Free consent, (2) Competency of parties, (3) Lawful consideration, (4) Lawful object, and (5) Not expressly declared void.
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 11 of the Contract Act 1872, who is competent to contract?
A
Every person who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law
✓ Correct
B
Any minor above the age of seven
C
A person currently declared an insolvent debtor without discharge
D
Any person who can write his name
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 11 Contract Act specifies: Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject (Age of Majority Act 1875 - 18 years), who is of sound mind, and not disqualified by any law. A contract with a minor is void ab initio (Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose).
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 14 of the Contract Act, consent is said to be 'Free' when it is NOT caused by:
A
Coercion (Sec 15), Undue Influence (Sec 16), Fraud (Sec 17), Misrepresentation (Sec 18), or Mistake (Sec 20, 21, 22)
✓ Correct
B
Advice from a commercial broker
C
Reading the terms in English
D
Making an online electronic signature
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 14 Contract Act defines Free Consent as consent not vitiated by Coercion (Sec 15), Undue Influence (Sec 16), Fraud (Sec 17), Misrepresentation (Sec 18), or Mistake (Sec 20-22). If caused by coercion, fraud, or misrepresentation, the agreement is voidable at the option of the aggrieved party (Sec 19).
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 23 of the Contract Act 1872, the consideration or object of an agreement is lawful UNLESS:
A
It is forbidden by law, defeats provisions of any law, is fraudulent, involves injury to person or property, or the Court regards it as immoral or opposed to public policy
✓ Correct
B
It involves payments in foreign currency
C
It is signed on a non-judicial stamp paper of Rs. 100
D
It relates to maritime shipping
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 23 Contract Act renders void any agreement whose consideration or object is unlawful because it is forbidden by law, defeats any law, is fraudulent, involves injury to another, or is regarded by court as immoral or opposed to public policy.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 27 of the Contract Act 1872, an agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind is:
A
To that extent void (except for sale of goodwill of a business)
✓ Correct
B
Valid and enforceable in all cases
C
Punishable with 3 years imprisonment
D
Enforceable only against public servants
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 27 Contract Act renders void agreements in restraint of trade, with the sole exception of a person who sells the goodwill of a business agreeing with the buyer to refrain from carrying on a similar business within specified local limits.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 28 of the Contract Act, an agreement by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract by the usual legal proceedings is:
A
Void (except contracts to refer disputes to arbitration)
✓ Correct
B
Valid if signed before a magistrate
C
Subject to a 10-year limitation period
D
Binding upon legal heirs
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 28 Contract Act provides that agreements in absolute restraint of legal proceedings are void, with the vital statutory exception of agreements to refer future or existing disputes to arbitration.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 74 of the Contract Act 1872, when a contract has been broken, and a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of such breach (liquidated damages or penalty), the party complaining of the breach is entitled to receive:
A
Reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named or penalty stipulated, whether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused
✓ Correct
B
The exact full penalty amount plus interest without inquiry
C
Triple damages as punitive award
D
Nothing unless criminal fraud is established
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 74 Contract Act abolishes the common law distinction between liquidated damages and penalty: The party complaining of breach is entitled to receive reasonable compensation not exceeding the penalty/amount named, whether or not actual damage is proved.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 56 of the Contract Act 1872, an agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void. What happens if a contract becomes impossible or unlawful after it is made (Doctrine of Frustration)?
A
The contract becomes void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful
✓ Correct
B
The contract remains binding and the promisor must pay treble damages
C
The court modifies the contract terms unilaterally
D
The promisor is criminally prosecuted for negligence
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 56 Contract Act embodies the Doctrine of Frustration: A contract to do an act which, after the contract is made, becomes impossible, or by reason of some event which the promisor could not prevent, unlawful, becomes void when the act becomes impossible or unlawful.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 64 of the Contract Act 1872, when a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, the other party thereto need not perform any promise therein contained, and the party rescinding must:
A
Restore any benefit received under the contract to the person from whom it was received (Restitution)
✓ Correct
B
Retain all benefits received without compensation
C
Pay a state penalty to the federal government
D
Transfer the subject matter to an arbitration tribunal
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 64 Contract Act mandates restitution upon rescission of a voidable contract: The party rescinding a voidable contract shall, if he have received any benefit thereunder from another party to such contract, restore such benefit, so far as may be, to the person from whom it was received.
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