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SUBJECT SPECIALIST TEACHER - COMPUTER SCIENCE (MIDDLE & SENIOR WINGS) (PAY SCALE 17) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
Direct Departmental Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
4778 Total Solved Questions
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Instructions / Reading Passage
11 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE TEST (Basic Computer Knowledge): Write the correct answer for the provided multiple-choice questions involving expert systems, industrial computer applications (POS, CIM, Actuarial accounting), and management information system (MIS) modeling.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Expert systems are part of the general area of research known as
A
AI
✓ Correct
B
ES
C
STUDENT
D
RAND
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broad field that encompasses the development of expert systems.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the future, users of a computer system may identify themselves by entering a:
A
Hard print
B
Soft print
C
Voice print
✓ Correct
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Biometric identification methods include voice recognition (voice prints) for user authentication.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The most prominent system in the retail sales industry is the ________ system:
A
POS (point-of-scale)
✓ Correct
B
COBOL
C
ACM
D
PC/XT
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Point of Sale systems are standard for managing transactions and inventory in retail.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The integration of the computer with manufacturing is called CIM or
A
CAM
B
CAD
C
Computer manufacturing
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the full automation of a manufacturing facility.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A ________ purpose computer is designed for a specific application:
A
Special
✓ Correct
B
Analog
C
Hybrid
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special-purpose computers are built to perform one specific set of tasks or applications.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Actuarial accounting system is associated with the ________ industry:
A
Insurance
✓ Correct
B
Reliable
C
Consistent
D
Exhaustive
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Actuarial science is primarily used by the insurance industry to assess risk and uncertainty.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A variable that has no physical meaning and is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to a linear programming problem is known as:
A
Basis
B
Algorithm
C
Artificial variable
✓ Correct
D
Basic variable
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In linear programming, artificial variables are used to facilitate finding an initial feasible solution.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
QUB is an example of ________ systems:
A
Problem-solving
B
Inventory
C
Electronic shopping
✓ Correct
D
Algebra
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QUB (historically standing for Queen's University Belfast Electronic Shopping System experiment or similar early regional academic network paradigms referenced in localized commerce and MIS curriculums) is categorized as an early or specialized example of an Electronic shopping system or transactional network.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A
True
✓ Correct
B
False
C
Cannot be said
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Slack in project management represents the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the deadline.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The latest time that the event can be delayed without delaying the completion of the entire project in PERT chart is:
A
Earliest allowable time
B
Latest allowable time
✓ Correct
C
Earliest pass
D
Latest pass
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This term defines the absolute deadline for a specific node in a PERT network.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Anthony suggested that the area of management planning and control be segmented into:
A
Operational control
B
Strategic planning
C
Management control
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anthony's framework includes Strategic Planning, Management Control, and Operational Control.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
14 Questions in this set
SYSTEMS AND DECISION-MAKING: Solve questions regarding transaction processing, data collection terminals, operations research history, and the files required for receiving and engineering control systems.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following does not fall in the personal Decision-Making Area?
A
Pay-rolls
B
Cash flow analysis
✓ Correct
C
Income-tax assessment and recovery
D
Person's experience
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cash flow analysis is typically an organizational or corporate financial function rather than personal.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much should an organisation spend for information can be determined by some type of a:
A
Cost analysis
B
Benefit analysis
C
Cost-benefit analysis
✓ Correct
D
Any of the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Organisations weigh the cost of data acquisition against the value/benefit it provides.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A transportation problem in which the total supply available at the origins exactly satisfies the total demand required at the destinations is known as:
A
Degenerate solution
B
Balanced transportation problem
✓ Correct
C
Unbalanced transportation problem
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A "Balanced" problem occurs when total supply equals total demand.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Operations Research came into being due to:
A
Medical reasons
B
Military reasons
✓ Correct
C
Educational reasons
D
To improve transpiration
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Operations Research originated for tactical and logistical planning during World War II.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The funds management subsystems attempts to:
A
Increase cash input
B
Decrease cash output
C
Balance cash inflow with outflow
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Effective funds management ensures liquidity by matching timing of inflows and outflows.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A turnaround document can be a(n):
A
Punched card
B
OCR document
C
Neither nor (b)
✓ Correct
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the specific classification of turnaround documents in the source answer key.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the financial Decision-Making system which of the following is not a transaction processing system input:
A
Cash receipts
B
Cash returns
C
Cash issues
D
Warehouse requisition ship
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Requisition slips are inventory/logistics inputs rather than direct financial transaction inputs.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Header labels contain:
A
Creation data
✓ Correct
B
Control totals
C
Both and (b)
D
Either nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File headers typically store metadata such as the creation date and file ID.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Detected money errors are corrected with:
A
Debit entries
B
Credit entries
C
Both and (b)
✓ Correct
D
Neither nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adjustments for errors require offsetting debit or credit entries depending on the nature of the error.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The model base contains programs:
A
Written by the firm's programmers
B
Provided by the computer vendor
C
Purchased from outside firms, such as software houses
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Decision Support System's model base can incorporate software from various origins.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Management has become more complex because:
A
There is less time to react to competitive actions
B
The equipment used in many of the firm's activities has become more complex
C
Firms have become larger
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Global competition, technological complexity, and organizational scale contribute to management difficulty.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What data most likely would not be keyed into the order entry subsystem?
A
Item quantity
B
Customer number
C
Item number
D
Item cost
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Costs are usually master data retrieved from a file rather than manually keyed per order.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The engineering change control system makes changes in the:
A
Operations file
✓ Correct
B
Production schedule
C
Work force data
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Design changes directly impact the steps and specifications in the operations file.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Corporate modeling software can be used for:
A
Cash planning
B
Operational budgeting
C
Capital budgeting
D
All the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modeling software assists in various strategic and operational planning tasks.
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Q. 1
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which teaching method proceeds from specific concrete examples and observations to general rules and principles?
A
Deductive method
B
Inductive method
✓ Correct
C
Lecture method
D
Historical method
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The inductive method moves from specific facts, observations, and examples to form generalized principles or rules, fostering active student reasoning.
Q. 2
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Heuristic method of teaching, which places the learner in the attitude of an original discoverer or researcher, was advocated by:
A
John Dewey
B
H. E. Armstrong
✓ Correct
C
William Kilpatrick
D
B. F. Skinner
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Professor H. E. Armstrong developed the Heuristic method (derived from the Greek 'heurisco', meaning 'I discover'), emphasizing independent inquiry and problem solving.
Q. 3
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Project Method of education, based on pragmatic philosophy and learning by doing, was formulated by:
A
William Heard Kilpatrick
✓ Correct
B
Maria Montessori
C
Friedrich Froebel
D
Jean Piaget
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
William Heard Kilpatrick, a student and follower of John Dewey, introduced the Project Method, defining a project as a 'wholehearted purposeful activity proceeding in a social environment.'
Q. 4
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In micro-teaching, what is the standard duration of the initial 'Teach' session according to the standard micro-teaching cycle?
A
6 minutes
✓ Correct
B
15 minutes
C
30 minutes
D
45 minutes
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The standard Indian/Stanford micro-teaching cycle consists of: Teach (6 min), Feedback (6 min), Re-plan (12 min), Re-teach (6 min), and Re-feedback (6 min), totaling 36 minutes.
Q. 5
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Who is recognized as the pioneer of Micro-teaching at Stanford University in 1963?
A
Dwight W. Allen
✓ Correct
B
Benjamin Bloom
C
Jerome Bruner
D
Robert Gagne
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Dwight W. Allen and his colleagues developed Micro-teaching in 1963 at Stanford University as a scaled-down teacher training technique to master discrete pedagogical skills.
Q. 6
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which instructional technique involves presenting a real-world scenario or problem where students work cooperatively in groups to discover solutions without prior direct lectures?
A
Rote recitation
B
Problem-Based Learning (PBL)
✓ Correct
C
Programmed instruction
D
Direct instruction
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Problem-Based Learning (PBL) is a student-centered approach where students learn about a subject by working in groups to solve an open-ended, authentic problem.
Q. 7
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In a 'Flipped Classroom' instructional model, how is instructional time typically reorganized?
A
Direct instruction lectures are viewed outside the classroom (at home via videos), while class time is devoted to active problem-solving and discussions
✓ Correct
B
Students teach other classes while teachers prepare exams
C
Homework is eliminated entirely without any pre-class preparation
D
Exams are conducted at home and lectures are held in class
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The flipped classroom inverts traditional teaching: foundational conceptual content is delivered online before class, freeing in-person class time for collaborative activities and deeper application.
Q. 8
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The 'Jigsaw' cooperative learning strategy is primarily structured so that:
A
Each student in a home group becomes an 'expert' on a distinct subtopic and then teaches it to their peers
✓ Correct
B
Students compete against each other to finish puzzles fastest
C
The teacher lectures while students remain in individual study carrels
D
High-achieving students complete all the assignments for the group
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Developed by Elliot Aronson, the Jigsaw classroom assigns each member of a cooperative group a specific segment of material; students meet in expert groups to master it and then return to instruct their home group.
Q. 9
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary pedagogical limitation of the traditional Lecture Method?
A
It cannot cover large volumes of syllabus content quickly
B
It tends to place students in a passive receptive role and provides limited feedback on individual comprehension
✓ Correct
C
It requires expensive laboratory apparatus
D
It can only be used with very small groups of 3-5 students
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While efficient for delivering factual content to large audiences, the lecture method fosters passive listening, does not accommodate individual learning paces, and provides minimal real-time feedback.
Q. 10
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which level of questioning according to Bloom's taxonomy is illustrated by: 'What would happen if the earth's gravitational pull suddenly decreased by 50%?'
A
Knowledge / Remembering
B
Comprehension / Understanding
C
Hypothesizing / Creating
✓ Correct
D
Recalling factual dates
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Asking students to predict hypothetical outcomes or generate new scenarios requires synthesis, evaluation, and creative divergence (top tiers of Bloom's cognitive domain).
Q. 11
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Socratic Method of teaching is fundamentally characterized by:
A
Continuous teacher monologue with slide presentations
B
Disciplined, cooperative questioning to stimulate critical thinking and illuminate underlying presuppositions
✓ Correct
C
Silent reading of classic philosophical texts
D
Memorizing dogma without question
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Socratic method employs a dialectical sequence of targeted probing questions to challenge assumptions, expose contradictions, and lead the learner to discover insights rationally.
Q. 12
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In Gagne's Nine Events of Instruction, what is the very first pedagogical event that a teacher must execute?
A
Informing the learner of the objective
B
Gaining attention of the students
✓ Correct
C
Stimulating recall of prior learning
D
Presenting the stimulus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Robert Gagne's first instructional event is 'Gaining Attention' (reception), ensuring students are alert, curious, and mentally primed before introducing goals or content.
Q. 13
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Differentiated instruction requires teachers to modify which three fundamental curricular elements based on student readiness, interest, and learning profile?
A
Content, Process, and Product
✓ Correct
B
Tuition fees, Class size, and School calendar
C
Punishments, Attendance, and Uniforms
D
Textbook publisher, Classroom lighting, and Desk color
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
According to Carol Ann Tomlinson, differentiated instruction adapts Content (what is learned), Process (how it is learned/made sense of), and Product (how learning is demonstrated).
Q. 14
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which collaborative strategy directs students to reflect individually on a prompt, discuss their ideas with a partner, and then share findings with the larger group?
A
Think-Pair-Share
✓ Correct
B
Fishbowl technique
C
Rote drilling
D
Silent recitation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Think-Pair-Share (developed by Frank Lyman) increases classroom participation by providing wait time for individual thought, low-risk peer discussion, and wider class engagement.
Q. 15
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Demonstration Method of teaching is particularly indispensable in which pedagogical context?
A
Teaching abstract philosophical terminology
B
Teaching procedural laboratory skills, science experiments, and physical operations
✓ Correct
C
Silent creative poetry writing
D
Memorizing historical timelines
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Demonstration combines auditory explanation with visual modeling ('showing and telling'), proving essential for science experiments, sports techniques, and clinical/technical procedures.
Q. 16
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the recommended pedagogical 'wait time' a teacher should pause after posing a challenging question before calling on a student?
A
Less than 1 second
B
3 to 5 seconds
✓ Correct
C
20 to 30 seconds
D
5 minutes
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mary Budd Rowe's seminal research demonstrated that extending teacher wait time to 3-5 seconds significantly increases the length, quality, and cognitive sophistication of student responses.
Q. 17
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In an inductive lesson, which step immediately follows the presentation of specific examples?
A
Formulation of general conclusion or rule
B
Comparison and observation of common attributes across examples
✓ Correct
C
Testing with a final exam
D
Dismissal of the class
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The formal Herbartian/inductive sequence proceeds: Preparation -> Presentation of examples -> Comparison and abstraction -> Generalization -> Application/Verification.
Q. 18
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which educational technology tool is classified as an 'asynchronous' learning platform?
A
Live Zoom video conference
B
Discussion forum on Moodle / Google Classroom
✓ Correct
C
Real-time telephone call
D
Instant in-person debate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Asynchronous tools (discussion boards, recorded lectures, email) allow learners to engage with content and communicate at their own independent schedule rather than simultaneously in real time.
Q. 19
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In a deductive lesson, the teacher begins with:
A
A general rule, law, or formula, followed by specific examples and practice problems
✓ Correct
B
Field trip observations without any prior theory
C
Student-led spontaneous brainstorming
D
Unguided trial and error
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Deductive instruction is top-down: it begins with an established statement of general principle or rule, followed by deductive application to specific test examples.
Q. 20
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Brainstorming sessions in an educational setting are governed by which foundational rule during the idea generation phase?
A
Immediate critique and elimination of flawed proposals
B
Deferred judgment / suspension of criticism to encourage maximum volume of ideas
✓ Correct
C
Strict adherence to textbook formulations only
D
Grading each contribution on an individual rubric
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Alex Osborn's rules for brainstorming require withholding criticism during idea generation to remove psychological barriers and encourage diverse, out-of-the-box contributions.
Q. 21
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which instructional aid provides direct, purposeful concrete experience at the base of Edgar Dale's 'Cone of Experience'?
A
Verbal symbols (text)
B
Direct, purposeful experiences (hands-on real life)
✓ Correct
C
Visual symbols (charts)
D
Motion pictures
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Edgar Dale's Cone of Experience places 'Direct, Purposeful Experiences' at the broad base as the most concrete foundation of learning, progressing upward to abstract verbal symbols at the pinnacle.
Q. 22
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The educational concept of 'Scaffolding' in instructional delivery refers to:
A
Permanent structural physical scaffolding in school construction
B
Temporary supportive structures provided by an educator that are gradually removed as the learner achieves mastery
✓ Correct
C
Rigid behavioral punishments for incomplete homework
D
Segregating students into separate physical buildings
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Wood, Bruner, and Ross introduced 'scaffolding' to describe supportive hints, modeling, and prompts provided during early learning stages, which are progressively faded as autonomy grows.
Q. 23
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which questioning technique involves a teacher redirecting an identical unanswered question to another student in the room without providing the answer?
A
Probing
B
Redirecting
✓ Correct
C
Prompting
D
Rephrasing
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Redirection involves drawing other students into the dialogue by posing the same question to a different student, increasing total participation and active peer listening.
Q. 24
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary role of a teacher in a modern constructivist classroom?
A
Authoritarian provider of absolute knowledge
B
Facilitator, guide, and mediator of learning experiences
✓ Correct
C
Passive observer who does not intervene
D
Strict exam grader only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In constructivist pedagogy (Piaget, Vygotsky), the teacher transitions from the 'sage on the stage' to a 'guide on the side'—facilitating inquiry, questioning, and student sense-making.
Q. 25
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Role-playing as an instructional method is particularly effective for developing which student capability?
A
Mechanical memorization of chemical formulas
B
Empathy, interpersonal communication, and perspective-taking in social situations
✓ Correct
C
High-speed mental arithmetic
D
Typing accuracy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Role-playing immerses students in the viewpoints of different individuals, making it ideal for exploring ethical dilemmas, conflict resolution, history, and social emotional empathy.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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