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Instructions / Reading Passage
11 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE TEST (Basic Computer Knowledge): Write the correct answer for the provided multiple-choice questions involving expert systems, industrial computer applications (POS, CIM, Actuarial accounting), and management information system (MIS) modeling.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Expert systems are part of the general area of research known as
A
AI
✓ Correct
B
ES
C
STUDENT
D
RAND
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broad field that encompasses the development of expert systems.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the future, users of a computer system may identify themselves by entering a:
A
Hard print
B
Soft print
C
Voice print
✓ Correct
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Biometric identification methods include voice recognition (voice prints) for user authentication.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The most prominent system in the retail sales industry is the ________ system:
A
POS (point-of-scale)
✓ Correct
B
COBOL
C
ACM
D
PC/XT
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Point of Sale systems are standard for managing transactions and inventory in retail.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The integration of the computer with manufacturing is called CIM or
A
CAM
B
CAD
C
Computer manufacturing
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the full automation of a manufacturing facility.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A ________ purpose computer is designed for a specific application:
A
Special
✓ Correct
B
Analog
C
Hybrid
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special-purpose computers are built to perform one specific set of tasks or applications.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Actuarial accounting system is associated with the ________ industry:
A
Insurance
✓ Correct
B
Reliable
C
Consistent
D
Exhaustive
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Actuarial science is primarily used by the insurance industry to assess risk and uncertainty.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A variable that has no physical meaning and is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to a linear programming problem is known as:
A
Basis
B
Algorithm
C
Artificial variable
✓ Correct
D
Basic variable
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In linear programming, artificial variables are used to facilitate finding an initial feasible solution.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
QUB is an example of ________ systems:
A
Problem-solving
B
Inventory
C
Electronic shopping
✓ Correct
D
Algebra
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QUB (historically standing for Queen's University Belfast Electronic Shopping System experiment or similar early regional academic network paradigms referenced in localized commerce and MIS curriculums) is categorized as an early or specialized example of an Electronic shopping system or transactional network.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A
True
✓ Correct
B
False
C
Cannot be said
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Slack in project management represents the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the deadline.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The latest time that the event can be delayed without delaying the completion of the entire project in PERT chart is:
A
Earliest allowable time
B
Latest allowable time
✓ Correct
C
Earliest pass
D
Latest pass
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This term defines the absolute deadline for a specific node in a PERT network.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Anthony suggested that the area of management planning and control be segmented into:
A
Operational control
B
Strategic planning
C
Management control
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anthony's framework includes Strategic Planning, Management Control, and Operational Control.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
14 Questions in this set
SYSTEMS AND DECISION-MAKING: Solve questions regarding transaction processing, data collection terminals, operations research history, and the files required for receiving and engineering control systems.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following does not fall in the personal Decision-Making Area?
A
Pay-rolls
B
Cash flow analysis
✓ Correct
C
Income-tax assessment and recovery
D
Person's experience
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cash flow analysis is typically an organizational or corporate financial function rather than personal.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much should an organisation spend for information can be determined by some type of a:
A
Cost analysis
B
Benefit analysis
C
Cost-benefit analysis
✓ Correct
D
Any of the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Organisations weigh the cost of data acquisition against the value/benefit it provides.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A transportation problem in which the total supply available at the origins exactly satisfies the total demand required at the destinations is known as:
A
Degenerate solution
B
Balanced transportation problem
✓ Correct
C
Unbalanced transportation problem
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A "Balanced" problem occurs when total supply equals total demand.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Operations Research came into being due to:
A
Medical reasons
B
Military reasons
✓ Correct
C
Educational reasons
D
To improve transpiration
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Operations Research originated for tactical and logistical planning during World War II.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The funds management subsystems attempts to:
A
Increase cash input
B
Decrease cash output
C
Balance cash inflow with outflow
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Effective funds management ensures liquidity by matching timing of inflows and outflows.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A turnaround document can be a(n):
A
Punched card
B
OCR document
C
Neither nor (b)
✓ Correct
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the specific classification of turnaround documents in the source answer key.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the financial Decision-Making system which of the following is not a transaction processing system input:
A
Cash receipts
B
Cash returns
C
Cash issues
D
Warehouse requisition ship
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Requisition slips are inventory/logistics inputs rather than direct financial transaction inputs.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Header labels contain:
A
Creation data
✓ Correct
B
Control totals
C
Both and (b)
D
Either nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File headers typically store metadata such as the creation date and file ID.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Detected money errors are corrected with:
A
Debit entries
B
Credit entries
C
Both and (b)
✓ Correct
D
Neither nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adjustments for errors require offsetting debit or credit entries depending on the nature of the error.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The model base contains programs:
A
Written by the firm's programmers
B
Provided by the computer vendor
C
Purchased from outside firms, such as software houses
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Decision Support System's model base can incorporate software from various origins.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Management has become more complex because:
A
There is less time to react to competitive actions
B
The equipment used in many of the firm's activities has become more complex
C
Firms have become larger
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Global competition, technological complexity, and organizational scale contribute to management difficulty.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What data most likely would not be keyed into the order entry subsystem?
A
Item quantity
B
Customer number
C
Item number
D
Item cost
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Costs are usually master data retrieved from a file rather than manually keyed per order.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The engineering change control system makes changes in the:
A
Operations file
✓ Correct
B
Production schedule
C
Work force data
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Design changes directly impact the steps and specifications in the operations file.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Corporate modeling software can be used for:
A
Cash planning
B
Operational budgeting
C
Capital budgeting
D
All the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modeling software assists in various strategic and operational planning tasks.
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Q. 1
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
For a moderately skewed unimodal frequency distribution, what is Karl Pearson's empirical relationship between the Mean, Median, and Mode?
A
Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean
✓ Correct
B
Mean = 3 Mode - 2 Median
C
Median = 3 Mean - 2 Mode
D
Mode = 2 Median - 3 Mean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Karl Pearson observed that for moderately asymmetrical unimodal frequency curves, the distance between the mean and mode is approximately three times the distance between the mean and median: (Mean - Mode) ≈ 3(Mean - Median), which rearranges to Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean.
Q. 2
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which measure of central tendency is most severely distorted and influenced by extreme outlier values in a dataset?
A
Arithmetic Mean
✓ Correct
B
Median
C
Mode
D
Interquartile Range
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The arithmetic mean uses every numerical value in its calculation ($\sum x / n$), making it highly sensitive to extreme high or low outliers. The median and mode are resistant/robust measures of location.
Q. 3
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
When calculating the average rate of speed, velocity, or price-per-unit ratios, which mathematical average is theoretically the most appropriate measure of central tendency?
A
Harmonic Mean
✓ Correct
B
Arithmetic Mean
C
Median
D
Mode
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The harmonic mean ($H = n / \sum (1/x_i)$) is the reciprocal of the arithmetic mean of reciprocals. It is mathematically the correct average for rates, ratios, speeds over equal distances, and prices per unit.
Q. 4
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
For calculating the average annual growth rate of population, financial compound interest, or index numbers, which average is statistically optimal?
A
Geometric Mean
✓ Correct
B
Arithmetic Mean
C
Harmonic Mean
D
Mode
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The geometric mean ($G = (\prod x_i)^{1/n}$) is mathematically designed for averaging percentages, percentage changes, ratios, compounding financial interest, and multi-year demographic growth rates.
Q. 5
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
For any set of positive, distinct real numbers ($x_i > 0$), what is the universal mathematical inequality relationship between the Arithmetic Mean (AM), Geometric Mean (GM), and Harmonic Mean (HM)?
A
AM > GM > HM
✓ Correct
B
HM > GM > AM
C
GM > AM > HM
D
AM = GM > HM
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The classical AM-GM-HM inequality states that for positive, non-identical numbers, the Arithmetic Mean is strictly greater than the Geometric Mean, which in turn is strictly greater than the Harmonic Mean: $AM > GM > HM$. They are equal only if all values are identical.
Q. 6
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The algebraic sum of the deviations of a set of observations from their arithmetic mean ($\sum (x_i - \bar{x})$) is ALWAYS equal to:
A
Zero (0)
✓ Correct
B
One (1)
C
The variance
D
The standard error
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A fundamental mathematical property of the arithmetic mean is that the sum of positive and negative deviations about the mean cancels out exactly: $\sum (x_i - \bar{x}) = \sum x_i - n\bar{x} = n\bar{x} - n\bar{x} = 0$.
Q. 7
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The sum of squared deviations of a set of values ($\sum (x_i - A)^2$) is minimized when $A$ is chosen as the:
A
Arithmetic Mean
✓ Correct
B
Median
C
Mode
D
Geometric Mean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
By differential calculus, $\sum (x_i - A)^2$ attains its global absolute minimum when $A = \bar{x}$ (the arithmetic mean). Conversely, the sum of absolute deviations $\sum |x_i - A|$ is minimized when $A$ is the median.
Q. 8
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In an ogive (cumulative frequency curve), the value on the horizontal axis corresponding to the intersection point of the 'less than' ogive and 'more than' ogive gives the:
A
Median
✓ Correct
B
Arithmetic Mean
C
Mode
D
Variance
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The intersection of the 'less than' cumulative frequency curve ($N/2$ from below) and the 'more than' cumulative frequency curve ($N/2$ from above) occurs precisely at the 50th percentile, which defines the Median.
Q. 9
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What relative measure of dispersion expresses the standard deviation as a percentage of the arithmetic mean to compare variability between datasets with different units of measurement?
A
Coefficient of Variation (CV)
✓ Correct
B
Variance
C
Standard Error
D
Range
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Coefficient of Variation ($CV = (s / \bar{x}) \times 100\%$) is a dimensionless relative measure of dispersion introduced by Karl Pearson, allowing direct comparison of risk or variability across datasets with different units or disparate means.
Q. 10
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
If every single observation in a dataset is multiplied by a constant $c = 5$, how does the standard deviation of the transformed dataset change?
A
It is multiplied by 5
✓ Correct
B
It is multiplied by 25
C
It remains unchanged
D
It increases by 5 units
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Multiplying data values by a constant $c$ scales the standard deviation by $|c|$ (so $s_{new} = 5 \times s_{old}$), while the variance scales by $c^2$ (so $s^2_{new} = 25 \times s^2_{old}$). Adding a constant changes neither standard deviation nor variance.
Q. 11
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
If every observation in a dataset is increased by adding a constant $k = 10$, what happens to the standard deviation and the variance?
A
Both standard deviation and variance remain completely unchanged
✓ Correct
B
Standard deviation increases by 10
C
Variance increases by 100
D
Standard deviation is multiplied by 10
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Measures of dispersion (range, IQR, mean deviation, variance, standard deviation) are independent of change of origin. Adding or subtracting a constant shifts all points equally without altering their spread relative to each other.
Q. 12
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Interquartile Range (IQR) is mathematically defined as the difference between which two percentiles?
A
Third Quartile ($Q_3$ / 75th percentile) and First Quartile ($Q_1$ / 25th percentile)
✓ Correct
B
90th percentile and 10th percentile
C
Maximum and Minimum value
D
Mean and Median
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Interquartile Range ($IQR = Q_3 - Q_1$) spans the central 50% of ordered observations, serving as an outlier-resistant measure of statistical spread.
Q. 13
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In John Tukey's standard Box-and-Whisker plot, an observation is classified as an 'outlier' if it lies beyond:
A
$Q_1 - 1.5 \times IQR$ or $Q_3 + 1.5 \times IQR$
✓ Correct
B
$Mean \pm 1.0 \times SD$
C
$Q_1 - 0.5 \times IQR$ or $Q_3 + 0.5 \times IQR$
D
Beyond the 95th percentile only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Tukey established the 'inner fences' of a boxplot at $[Q_1 - 1.5 \cdot IQR, Q_3 + 1.5 \cdot IQR]$. Data points falling outside these fences are plotted individually as suspected outliers.
Q. 14
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the value of the first central moment ($\mu_1$) about the arithmetic mean for any probability distribution?
A
Exactly 0
✓ Correct
B
Exactly 1
C
The variance
D
The standard deviation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The $r$-th central moment is defined as $\mu_r = E[(X - \mu)^r]$. For $r = 1$, $\mu_1 = E[X - \mu] = E[X] - \mu = \mu - \mu = 0$ for every valid distribution.
Q. 15
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The second central moment about the mean ($\mu_2 = E[(X - \mu)^2]$) represents which fundamental statistical parameter?
A
Variance
✓ Correct
B
Standard error
C
Skewness
D
Kurtosis
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
By definition, the second central moment $\mu_2$ is the variance ($\sigma^2$), measuring dispersion of observations around the population mean.
Q. 16
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Karl Pearson's moment coefficient of skewness ($\beta_1$) is calculated using the second and third central moments as:
A
$\beta_1 = \mu_3^2 / \mu_2^3$
✓ Correct
B
$\beta_1 = \mu_3 / \mu_2$
C
$\beta_1 = \mu_4 / \mu_2^2$
D
$\beta_1 = \mu_2^3 / \mu_3^2$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Pearson defined $\beta_1 = \mu_3^2 / \mu_2^3$. The standardized skewness coefficient is $\gamma_1 = \sqrt{\beta_1} = \mu_3 / \sigma^3$. For a symmetric distribution, $\mu_3 = 0$ and $\beta_1 = 0$.
Q. 17
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A continuous frequency curve has a long tail stretching to the right side (positive values). What is the relative order of the three measures of central location?
A
Mean > Median > Mode
✓ Correct
B
Mode > Median > Mean
C
Median > Mean > Mode
D
Mean = Median = Mode
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In a positively (right) skewed distribution, extreme high values pull the mean farthest into the right tail, resulting in: $\text{Mean} > \text{Median} > \text{Mode}$. In a negatively (left) skewed distribution: $\text{Mode} > \text{Median} > \text{Mean}$.
Q. 18
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Karl Pearson's coefficient of kurtosis is defined as $\beta_2 = \mu_4 / \mu_2^2$. What is the value of $\beta_2$ for a perfectly normal (mesokurtic) distribution?
A
3.0 (or excess kurtosis $\gamma_2 = \beta_2 - 3 = 0$)
✓ Correct
B
0.0
C
1.0
D
0.5
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
For any Gaussian (normal) distribution, the ratio of the fourth central moment to the square of the second central moment is exactly $\beta_2 = 3$. Excess kurtosis is defined as $\gamma_2 = \beta_2 - 3 = 0$.
Q. 19
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A distribution that is more peaked around its center than a normal distribution and has fatter, heavier tails (with $\beta_2 > 3$) is classified as:
A
Leptokurtic
✓ Correct
B
Platykurtic
C
Mesokurtic
D
Symmetrical
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distributions with $\beta_2 > 3$ (excess kurtosis $> 0$) are termed 'leptokurtic' (sharp peak, heavy tails). Distributions with $\beta_2 < 3$ are 'platykurtic' (flatter peak, lighter tails), and $\beta_2 = 3$ is 'mesokurtic'.
Q. 20
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Two events $A$ and $B$ are said to be 'mutually exclusive' (disjoint) if and only if:
A
They cannot occur simultaneously ($P(A \cap B) = 0$)
✓ Correct
B
$P(A \cap B) = P(A) \times P(B)$
C
$P(A) + P(B) = 1$
D
$P(A|B) = P(A)$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mutually exclusive events have an empty intersection ($A \cap B = \emptyset$). Hence, the probability that both occur simultaneously is zero: $P(A \cap B) = 0$.
Q. 21
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Two events $A$ and $B$ are statistically 'independent' if and only if:
A
$P(A \cap B) = P(A) \times P(B)$
✓ Correct
B
$P(A \cap B) = 0$
C
$P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B)$
D
$P(A) = P(B)$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
By definition, events $A$ and $B$ are statistically independent when the occurrence of one does not affect the probability of the other, meaning $P(A|B) = P(A)$, which yields the multiplicative rule: $P(A \cap B) = P(A) \times P(B)$.
Q. 22
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
If two fair six-sided dice are rolled simultaneously, what is the probability of obtaining a sum equal to 7?
A
6 / 36 (1 / 6)
✓ Correct
B
1 / 36
C
7 / 36
D
1 / 12
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
There are $6 \times 6 = 36$ equally likely outcomes. The outcomes summing to 7 are: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1)—totaling 6 favorable outcomes. Thus, $P(\text{Sum} = 7) = 6/36 = 1/6$.
Q. 23
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Bayes' Theorem provides a mathematical framework for calculating:
A
Posterior probability given prior probabilities and conditional likelihoods
✓ Correct
B
The arithmetic mean of a sample
C
The exact range of a continuous variable
D
The degrees of freedom in an ANOVA table
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Bayes' Theorem ($P(A_i|B) = \frac{P(B|A_i)P(A_i)}{\sum P(B|A_j)P(A_j)}$) updates the prior probability of an event $A_i$ upon observing new empirical evidence $B$ to calculate the revised posterior probability.
Q. 24
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
For a discrete random variable $X$ with probability mass function $P(X = x)$, what two mathematical conditions must be satisfied?
A
$P(X = x) \ge 0$ for all $x$, and $\sum P(X = x) = 1$
✓ Correct
B
$P(X = x) \le 0$, and $\sum P(X = x) = 0$
C
$P(X = x) > 1$, and $\sum P(X = x) = 100$
D
$\sum P(X = x) = \infty$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The axioms of probability mandate that every individual probability mass must be non-negative ($0 \le P(X=x) \le 1$), and the sum of probabilities across the entire sample space must equal exactly 1.
Q. 25
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
For a continuous random variable $X$ with probability density function $f(x)$, what is the probability that $X$ takes on any single exact point value $c$ ($P(X = c)$)?
A
Exactly 0
✓ Correct
B
Exactly 1
C
$f(c)$
D
$0.5$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
For continuous random variables, probabilities correspond to areas under the density curve: $P(a \le X \le b) = \int_a^b f(x) dx$. Because the area over a single dimensionless point is zero, $P(X = c) = \int_c^c f(x) dx = 0$.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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