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COMPUTER INSTRUCTOR (MALE) (BS-17) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
FPSC Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
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Instructions / Reading Passage
11 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE TEST (Basic Computer Knowledge): Write the correct answer for the provided multiple-choice questions involving expert systems, industrial computer applications (POS, CIM, Actuarial accounting), and management information system (MIS) modeling.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Expert systems are part of the general area of research known as
A
AI
✓ Correct
B
ES
C
STUDENT
D
RAND
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broad field that encompasses the development of expert systems.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the future, users of a computer system may identify themselves by entering a:
A
Hard print
B
Soft print
C
Voice print
✓ Correct
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Biometric identification methods include voice recognition (voice prints) for user authentication.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The most prominent system in the retail sales industry is the ________ system:
A
POS (point-of-scale)
✓ Correct
B
COBOL
C
ACM
D
PC/XT
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Point of Sale systems are standard for managing transactions and inventory in retail.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The integration of the computer with manufacturing is called CIM or
A
CAM
B
CAD
C
Computer manufacturing
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the full automation of a manufacturing facility.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A ________ purpose computer is designed for a specific application:
A
Special
✓ Correct
B
Analog
C
Hybrid
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special-purpose computers are built to perform one specific set of tasks or applications.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Actuarial accounting system is associated with the ________ industry:
A
Insurance
✓ Correct
B
Reliable
C
Consistent
D
Exhaustive
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Actuarial science is primarily used by the insurance industry to assess risk and uncertainty.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A variable that has no physical meaning and is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to a linear programming problem is known as:
A
Basis
B
Algorithm
C
Artificial variable
✓ Correct
D
Basic variable
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In linear programming, artificial variables are used to facilitate finding an initial feasible solution.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
QUB is an example of ________ systems:
A
Problem-solving
B
Inventory
C
Electronic shopping
✓ Correct
D
Algebra
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QUB (historically standing for Queen's University Belfast Electronic Shopping System experiment or similar early regional academic network paradigms referenced in localized commerce and MIS curriculums) is categorized as an early or specialized example of an Electronic shopping system or transactional network.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A
True
✓ Correct
B
False
C
Cannot be said
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Slack in project management represents the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the deadline.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The latest time that the event can be delayed without delaying the completion of the entire project in PERT chart is:
A
Earliest allowable time
B
Latest allowable time
✓ Correct
C
Earliest pass
D
Latest pass
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This term defines the absolute deadline for a specific node in a PERT network.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Anthony suggested that the area of management planning and control be segmented into:
A
Operational control
B
Strategic planning
C
Management control
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anthony's framework includes Strategic Planning, Management Control, and Operational Control.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
14 Questions in this set
SYSTEMS AND DECISION-MAKING: Solve questions regarding transaction processing, data collection terminals, operations research history, and the files required for receiving and engineering control systems.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following does not fall in the personal Decision-Making Area?
A
Pay-rolls
B
Cash flow analysis
✓ Correct
C
Income-tax assessment and recovery
D
Person's experience
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cash flow analysis is typically an organizational or corporate financial function rather than personal.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much should an organisation spend for information can be determined by some type of a:
A
Cost analysis
B
Benefit analysis
C
Cost-benefit analysis
✓ Correct
D
Any of the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Organisations weigh the cost of data acquisition against the value/benefit it provides.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A transportation problem in which the total supply available at the origins exactly satisfies the total demand required at the destinations is known as:
A
Degenerate solution
B
Balanced transportation problem
✓ Correct
C
Unbalanced transportation problem
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A "Balanced" problem occurs when total supply equals total demand.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Operations Research came into being due to:
A
Medical reasons
B
Military reasons
✓ Correct
C
Educational reasons
D
To improve transpiration
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Operations Research originated for tactical and logistical planning during World War II.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The funds management subsystems attempts to:
A
Increase cash input
B
Decrease cash output
C
Balance cash inflow with outflow
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Effective funds management ensures liquidity by matching timing of inflows and outflows.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A turnaround document can be a(n):
A
Punched card
B
OCR document
C
Neither nor (b)
✓ Correct
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the specific classification of turnaround documents in the source answer key.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the financial Decision-Making system which of the following is not a transaction processing system input:
A
Cash receipts
B
Cash returns
C
Cash issues
D
Warehouse requisition ship
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Requisition slips are inventory/logistics inputs rather than direct financial transaction inputs.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Header labels contain:
A
Creation data
✓ Correct
B
Control totals
C
Both and (b)
D
Either nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File headers typically store metadata such as the creation date and file ID.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Detected money errors are corrected with:
A
Debit entries
B
Credit entries
C
Both and (b)
✓ Correct
D
Neither nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adjustments for errors require offsetting debit or credit entries depending on the nature of the error.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The model base contains programs:
A
Written by the firm's programmers
B
Provided by the computer vendor
C
Purchased from outside firms, such as software houses
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Decision Support System's model base can incorporate software from various origins.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Management has become more complex because:
A
There is less time to react to competitive actions
B
The equipment used in many of the firm's activities has become more complex
C
Firms have become larger
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Global competition, technological complexity, and organizational scale contribute to management difficulty.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What data most likely would not be keyed into the order entry subsystem?
A
Item quantity
B
Customer number
C
Item number
D
Item cost
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Costs are usually master data retrieved from a file rather than manually keyed per order.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The engineering change control system makes changes in the:
A
Operations file
✓ Correct
B
Production schedule
C
Work force data
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Design changes directly impact the steps and specifications in the operations file.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Corporate modeling software can be used for:
A
Cash planning
B
Operational budgeting
C
Capital budgeting
D
All the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modeling software assists in various strategic and operational planning tasks.
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Q. 1
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which teaching method proceeds from specific concrete examples and observations to general rules and principles?
A
Deductive method
B
Inductive method
✓ Correct
C
Lecture method
D
Historical method
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The inductive method moves from specific facts, observations, and examples to form generalized principles or rules, fostering active student reasoning.
Q. 2
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Heuristic method of teaching, which places the learner in the attitude of an original discoverer or researcher, was advocated by:
A
John Dewey
B
H. E. Armstrong
✓ Correct
C
William Kilpatrick
D
B. F. Skinner
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Professor H. E. Armstrong developed the Heuristic method (derived from the Greek 'heurisco', meaning 'I discover'), emphasizing independent inquiry and problem solving.
Q. 3
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Project Method of education, based on pragmatic philosophy and learning by doing, was formulated by:
A
William Heard Kilpatrick
✓ Correct
B
Maria Montessori
C
Friedrich Froebel
D
Jean Piaget
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
William Heard Kilpatrick, a student and follower of John Dewey, introduced the Project Method, defining a project as a 'wholehearted purposeful activity proceeding in a social environment.'
Q. 4
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In micro-teaching, what is the standard duration of the initial 'Teach' session according to the standard micro-teaching cycle?
A
6 minutes
✓ Correct
B
15 minutes
C
30 minutes
D
45 minutes
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The standard Indian/Stanford micro-teaching cycle consists of: Teach (6 min), Feedback (6 min), Re-plan (12 min), Re-teach (6 min), and Re-feedback (6 min), totaling 36 minutes.
Q. 5
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Who is recognized as the pioneer of Micro-teaching at Stanford University in 1963?
A
Dwight W. Allen
✓ Correct
B
Benjamin Bloom
C
Jerome Bruner
D
Robert Gagne
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Dwight W. Allen and his colleagues developed Micro-teaching in 1963 at Stanford University as a scaled-down teacher training technique to master discrete pedagogical skills.
Q. 6
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which instructional technique involves presenting a real-world scenario or problem where students work cooperatively in groups to discover solutions without prior direct lectures?
A
Rote recitation
B
Problem-Based Learning (PBL)
✓ Correct
C
Programmed instruction
D
Direct instruction
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Problem-Based Learning (PBL) is a student-centered approach where students learn about a subject by working in groups to solve an open-ended, authentic problem.
Q. 7
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In a 'Flipped Classroom' instructional model, how is instructional time typically reorganized?
A
Direct instruction lectures are viewed outside the classroom (at home via videos), while class time is devoted to active problem-solving and discussions
✓ Correct
B
Students teach other classes while teachers prepare exams
C
Homework is eliminated entirely without any pre-class preparation
D
Exams are conducted at home and lectures are held in class
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The flipped classroom inverts traditional teaching: foundational conceptual content is delivered online before class, freeing in-person class time for collaborative activities and deeper application.
Q. 8
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The 'Jigsaw' cooperative learning strategy is primarily structured so that:
A
Each student in a home group becomes an 'expert' on a distinct subtopic and then teaches it to their peers
✓ Correct
B
Students compete against each other to finish puzzles fastest
C
The teacher lectures while students remain in individual study carrels
D
High-achieving students complete all the assignments for the group
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Developed by Elliot Aronson, the Jigsaw classroom assigns each member of a cooperative group a specific segment of material; students meet in expert groups to master it and then return to instruct their home group.
Q. 9
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary pedagogical limitation of the traditional Lecture Method?
A
It cannot cover large volumes of syllabus content quickly
B
It tends to place students in a passive receptive role and provides limited feedback on individual comprehension
✓ Correct
C
It requires expensive laboratory apparatus
D
It can only be used with very small groups of 3-5 students
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While efficient for delivering factual content to large audiences, the lecture method fosters passive listening, does not accommodate individual learning paces, and provides minimal real-time feedback.
Q. 10
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which level of questioning according to Bloom's taxonomy is illustrated by: 'What would happen if the earth's gravitational pull suddenly decreased by 50%?'
A
Knowledge / Remembering
B
Comprehension / Understanding
C
Hypothesizing / Creating
✓ Correct
D
Recalling factual dates
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Asking students to predict hypothetical outcomes or generate new scenarios requires synthesis, evaluation, and creative divergence (top tiers of Bloom's cognitive domain).
Q. 11
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Socratic Method of teaching is fundamentally characterized by:
A
Continuous teacher monologue with slide presentations
B
Disciplined, cooperative questioning to stimulate critical thinking and illuminate underlying presuppositions
✓ Correct
C
Silent reading of classic philosophical texts
D
Memorizing dogma without question
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Socratic method employs a dialectical sequence of targeted probing questions to challenge assumptions, expose contradictions, and lead the learner to discover insights rationally.
Q. 12
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In Gagne's Nine Events of Instruction, what is the very first pedagogical event that a teacher must execute?
A
Informing the learner of the objective
B
Gaining attention of the students
✓ Correct
C
Stimulating recall of prior learning
D
Presenting the stimulus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Robert Gagne's first instructional event is 'Gaining Attention' (reception), ensuring students are alert, curious, and mentally primed before introducing goals or content.
Q. 13
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Differentiated instruction requires teachers to modify which three fundamental curricular elements based on student readiness, interest, and learning profile?
A
Content, Process, and Product
✓ Correct
B
Tuition fees, Class size, and School calendar
C
Punishments, Attendance, and Uniforms
D
Textbook publisher, Classroom lighting, and Desk color
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
According to Carol Ann Tomlinson, differentiated instruction adapts Content (what is learned), Process (how it is learned/made sense of), and Product (how learning is demonstrated).
Q. 14
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which collaborative strategy directs students to reflect individually on a prompt, discuss their ideas with a partner, and then share findings with the larger group?
A
Think-Pair-Share
✓ Correct
B
Fishbowl technique
C
Rote drilling
D
Silent recitation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Think-Pair-Share (developed by Frank Lyman) increases classroom participation by providing wait time for individual thought, low-risk peer discussion, and wider class engagement.
Q. 15
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Demonstration Method of teaching is particularly indispensable in which pedagogical context?
A
Teaching abstract philosophical terminology
B
Teaching procedural laboratory skills, science experiments, and physical operations
✓ Correct
C
Silent creative poetry writing
D
Memorizing historical timelines
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Demonstration combines auditory explanation with visual modeling ('showing and telling'), proving essential for science experiments, sports techniques, and clinical/technical procedures.
Q. 16
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the recommended pedagogical 'wait time' a teacher should pause after posing a challenging question before calling on a student?
A
Less than 1 second
B
3 to 5 seconds
✓ Correct
C
20 to 30 seconds
D
5 minutes
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mary Budd Rowe's seminal research demonstrated that extending teacher wait time to 3-5 seconds significantly increases the length, quality, and cognitive sophistication of student responses.
Q. 17
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In an inductive lesson, which step immediately follows the presentation of specific examples?
A
Formulation of general conclusion or rule
B
Comparison and observation of common attributes across examples
✓ Correct
C
Testing with a final exam
D
Dismissal of the class
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The formal Herbartian/inductive sequence proceeds: Preparation -> Presentation of examples -> Comparison and abstraction -> Generalization -> Application/Verification.
Q. 18
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which educational technology tool is classified as an 'asynchronous' learning platform?
A
Live Zoom video conference
B
Discussion forum on Moodle / Google Classroom
✓ Correct
C
Real-time telephone call
D
Instant in-person debate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Asynchronous tools (discussion boards, recorded lectures, email) allow learners to engage with content and communicate at their own independent schedule rather than simultaneously in real time.
Q. 19
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In a deductive lesson, the teacher begins with:
A
A general rule, law, or formula, followed by specific examples and practice problems
✓ Correct
B
Field trip observations without any prior theory
C
Student-led spontaneous brainstorming
D
Unguided trial and error
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Deductive instruction is top-down: it begins with an established statement of general principle or rule, followed by deductive application to specific test examples.
Q. 20
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Brainstorming sessions in an educational setting are governed by which foundational rule during the idea generation phase?
A
Immediate critique and elimination of flawed proposals
B
Deferred judgment / suspension of criticism to encourage maximum volume of ideas
✓ Correct
C
Strict adherence to textbook formulations only
D
Grading each contribution on an individual rubric
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Alex Osborn's rules for brainstorming require withholding criticism during idea generation to remove psychological barriers and encourage diverse, out-of-the-box contributions.
Q. 21
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which instructional aid provides direct, purposeful concrete experience at the base of Edgar Dale's 'Cone of Experience'?
A
Verbal symbols (text)
B
Direct, purposeful experiences (hands-on real life)
✓ Correct
C
Visual symbols (charts)
D
Motion pictures
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Edgar Dale's Cone of Experience places 'Direct, Purposeful Experiences' at the broad base as the most concrete foundation of learning, progressing upward to abstract verbal symbols at the pinnacle.
Q. 22
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The educational concept of 'Scaffolding' in instructional delivery refers to:
A
Permanent structural physical scaffolding in school construction
B
Temporary supportive structures provided by an educator that are gradually removed as the learner achieves mastery
✓ Correct
C
Rigid behavioral punishments for incomplete homework
D
Segregating students into separate physical buildings
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Wood, Bruner, and Ross introduced 'scaffolding' to describe supportive hints, modeling, and prompts provided during early learning stages, which are progressively faded as autonomy grows.
Q. 23
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which questioning technique involves a teacher redirecting an identical unanswered question to another student in the room without providing the answer?
A
Probing
B
Redirecting
✓ Correct
C
Prompting
D
Rephrasing
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Redirection involves drawing other students into the dialogue by posing the same question to a different student, increasing total participation and active peer listening.
Q. 24
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary role of a teacher in a modern constructivist classroom?
A
Authoritarian provider of absolute knowledge
B
Facilitator, guide, and mediator of learning experiences
✓ Correct
C
Passive observer who does not intervene
D
Strict exam grader only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In constructivist pedagogy (Piaget, Vygotsky), the teacher transitions from the 'sage on the stage' to a 'guide on the side'—facilitating inquiry, questioning, and student sense-making.
Q. 25
Pedagogy
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Role-playing as an instructional method is particularly effective for developing which student capability?
A
Mechanical memorization of chemical formulas
B
Empathy, interpersonal communication, and perspective-taking in social situations
✓ Correct
C
High-speed mental arithmetic
D
Typing accuracy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Role-playing immerses students in the viewpoints of different individuals, making it ideal for exploring ethical dilemmas, conflict resolution, history, and social emotional empathy.
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📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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