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ASSISTANT DIRECTOR ESTATE (GENERAL) (BS-17) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
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Q. 1
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Article 175(3) of the Constitution of Pakistan provides that the Judiciary shall be separated progressively from the Executive within how many years from the commencing day?
A
Fourteen years (completed following the landmark Sharaf Faridi case in 1989/1993)
✓ Correct
B
One year
C
Fifty years
D
Three years
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 175(3) of the Constitution originally mandated the separation of the Judiciary from the Executive within three years (later amended to 14 years). The Supreme Court enforced this mandate in the landmark judgment Sharaf Faridi v. Federation of Pakistan (PLD 1989 SC 61).
Q. 2
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the highest judicial forum in Pakistan established under Part VII of the Constitution?
A
The Supreme Court of Pakistan
✓ Correct
B
The Federal Shariat Court
C
The Judicial Commission
D
The Law and Justice Commission
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 176 provides that the Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice of Pakistan and so many other Judges as may be determined by Act of Parliament.
Q. 3
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Article 201 of the Constitution, any decision of a High Court shall, to the extent that it decides a question of law or enunciates a principle of law, be binding on:
A
All courts that are subordinate to it
✓ Correct
B
All High Courts in other provinces
C
The Supreme Court
D
The Federal Cabinet
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 201 mandates that subject to Article 189 (decisions of Supreme Court), any decision of a High Court deciding a question of law or enunciating a principle of law is binding on all courts subordinate to it.
Q. 4
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In the doctrine of judicial precedent (Stare Decisis), 'Ratio Decidendi' refers to:
A
The underlying legal principle or rationale that was necessary to determine the judicial decision
✓ Correct
B
A passing remark made by a judge not strictly essential to the decision (Obiter Dictum)
C
The historical background of the litigants
D
The schedule of court fees paid
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ratio Decidendi is the legal reasoning, principle, or rule upon which a court's decision is founded, which forms the binding precedent for subordinate courts. Remarks made by the way are Obiter Dicta (persuasive only).
Q. 5
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A judgment delivered 'Per Incuriam' in judicial jurisprudence refers to a decision:
A
Rendered in ignorance or forgetfulness of an applicable statutory provision or a binding decision of a superior court
✓ Correct
B
Pronounced by a unanimous five-member full bench
C
Written in Latin rather than English
D
Decided on mutual compromise of the parties
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A decision is said to be per incuriam ('through lack of care') when it is given in ignorance of the terms of a statute or of a rule having the force of a statute, or a binding precedent of a higher court. Such decisions do not have binding authority.
Q. 6
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Article 212 of the Constitution of Pakistan, Administrative Courts and Service Tribunals exercise:
A
Exclusive jurisdiction in respect of matters relating to the terms and conditions of persons who are or have been in the service of Pakistan
✓ Correct
B
Concurrent jurisdiction with the Civil Courts in all land suits
C
Criminal trial jurisdiction for treason
D
Advisory jurisdiction on economic policy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 212 authorizes the establishment of Administrative Courts or Tribunals to exercise exclusive jurisdiction in respect of matters relating to the terms and conditions of persons who are or have been in civil service, barring civil courts and High Courts under Article 212(2).
Q. 7
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appeals against final judgments and orders of the Federal Service Tribunal (FST) lie directly to:
A
The Supreme Court of Pakistan under Article 212(3) (by grant of Leave to Appeal on a substantial question of law of public importance)
✓ Correct
B
The High Court Division Bench
C
The Federal Ombudsman (Wafaqi Mohtasib)
D
The Secretary Establishment Division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Article 212(3), an appeal to the Supreme Court of Pakistan from a judgment, decree, order or sentence of an Administrative Court or Tribunal lies only if the Supreme Court, being satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law of public importance, grants leave to appeal.
Q. 8
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Special Accountability Courts trying offences of corruption and corrupt practices in Pakistan are established under which statute?
A
The National Accountability Ordinance (NAO) 1999
✓ Correct
B
The Prevention of Corruption Act 1947
C
The Anti-Terrorism Act 1997
D
The Federal Investigation Agency Act 1974
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accountability Courts are established by the Federal Government under Section 5(g) of the National Accountability Ordinance 1999 to try offences under the Ordinance (Section 9 - Corruption and Corrupt Practices).
Q. 9
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 25 of the National Accountability Ordinance 1999, the Chairman NAB is empowered to accept:
A
Voluntary Return (VR) and Plea Bargain (PB)
✓ Correct
B
Unconditional pardon without recovery
C
Cash deposits in offshore accounts
D
Exemption from judicial trial for life
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 25 of the NAO 1999 governs Voluntary Return (Sec 25(a)) and Plea Bargain (Sec 25(b)), where an accused person offers to return assets or gains acquired through corruption, subject to approval by the court in case of Plea Bargain.
Q. 10
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Anti-Terrorism Courts (ATCs) in Pakistan are established under Section 13 of which Act?
A
The Anti-Terrorism Act (ATA) 1997
✓ Correct
B
The Maintenance of Public Order Ordinance 1960
C
The Protection of Pakistan Act 2014
D
The Special Courts Act 1976
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anti-Terrorism Courts are established by the Federal or Provincial Governments under Section 13 of the Anti-Terrorism Act 1997 to provide for speedy trial of heinous offences of terrorism, sectarian violence, and organized crime.
Q. 11
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 19(7) of the Anti-Terrorism Act 1997, on taking cognizance of the case, the ATC shall proceed with the trial from day-to-day and shall decide the case within:
A
Seven working days
✓ Correct
B
Thirty working days
C
Six months
D
One year
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 19(7) ATA mandates that the Court shall proceed with the trial from day-to-day and decide the case within seven working days, although in practice complex cases may take longer.
Q. 12
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appeals against any judgment, sentence or order passed by an Anti-Terrorism Court lie under Section 25 ATA to:
A
A High Court (heard by a Special Division Bench of at least two Judges)
✓ Correct
B
The Court of Session
C
The Supreme Court directly
D
The Ministry of Interior
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 25(1) ATA 1997, an appeal against the judgment of an ATC lies within 15 days to the High Court and shall be heard by a bench of not less than two Judges.
Q. 13
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Banking Courts in Pakistan are established under which specialized financial enactment?
A
Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finances) Ordinance 2001
✓ Correct
B
Banking Companies Act 1962
C
State Bank of Pakistan Act 1956
D
Negotiable Instruments Act 1881
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Banking Courts are established under Section 5 of the Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finances) Ordinance 2001 (FIO 2001) for summary recovery of loan defaults and enforcement of mortgages.
Q. 14
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In a suit filed by a bank under the Financial Institutions (Recovery of Finances) Ordinance 2001, the defendant cannot defend the suit unless he files an application for:
A
Leave to Defend within 30 days of service of summons
✓ Correct
B
Written statement without permission
C
Insolvency protection
D
Stay order from the High Court
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 10 FIO 2001, in any suit filed under the Ordinance, the defendant is not entitled to defend the suit unless he applies for and obtains leave to defend from the Banking Court within 30 days of the date of service.
Q. 15
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Special Judges (Central) are appointed by the Federal Government under the Criminal Law Amendment Act 1958 to try offences investigated by the:
A
Federal Investigation Agency (FIA)
✓ Correct
B
Local Traffic Police
C
Provincial Excise Department only
D
Forestry Rangers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special Judges (Central) are appointed under Section 3 of the Criminal Law Amendment Act 1958 to try offences specified in the schedule, predominantly investigated and prosecuted by the Federal Investigation Agency (FIA).
Q. 16
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under the Family Courts Act 1964, which of the following matters is NOT within the exclusive jurisdiction of the Family Court?
A
Commercial partnership dissolution
✓ Correct
B
Dissolution of Marriage (including Khula)
C
Dower, Maintenance, and Restitution of Conjugal Rights
D
Custody of children and guardianship
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the Schedule to Section 5 of the Family Courts Act 1964, exclusive jurisdiction vests in Family Courts for: dissolution of marriage, dower, maintenance, restitution of conjugal rights, custody of children/guardianship, jactitation of marriage, and personal property of wife. Commercial partnership is an ordinary civil matter.
Q. 17
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the Contempt of Court Ordinance 2003 (read with Article 204 of the Constitution), what are the three recognized classes of Contempt of Court in Pakistan?
A
Civil Contempt, Criminal Contempt, and Judicial Contempt
✓ Correct
B
Direct Contempt, Indirect Contempt, and Statutory Contempt
C
Legislative Contempt, Executive Contempt, and Public Contempt
D
Verbal Contempt, Written Contempt, and Visual Contempt
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 3 of the Contempt of Court Ordinance 2003 classifies contempt into: (1) Civil contempt (willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order or writ), (2) Criminal contempt (doing any act scandalizing or tending to lower authority of court), and (3) Judicial contempt (depravity of conduct in face of the court).
Q. 18
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 5 of the Contempt of Court Ordinance 2003, what is the maximum punishment that can be awarded for Contempt of Court?
A
Simple imprisonment for a term up to six months, or fine up to Rs. 100,000, or both
✓ Correct
B
Rigorous imprisonment for 10 years
C
Disqualification from voting for life
D
Forfeiture of all family property
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 5 of the Contempt of Court Ordinance 2003 prescribes: Whoever commits contempt of court may be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to one hundred thousand rupees, or with both.
Q. 19
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Legal Practitioners and Bar Councils Act 1973 governs the legal profession in Pakistan. Which body is the apex regulatory authority for advocates and bar associations across the country?
A
The Pakistan Bar Council (PBC)
✓ Correct
B
The Law and Justice Commission of Pakistan
C
The Supreme Court Bar Association
D
The Federal Ministry of Law and Justice
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the Legal Practitioners and Bar Councils Act 1973, the Pakistan Bar Council (chaired ex-officio by the Attorney-General for Pakistan) is the highest regulatory body governing legal education, enrolment of Supreme Court advocates, and professional conduct of advocates.
Q. 20
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the Canons of Professional Conduct of the Pakistan Bar Council, an advocate is strictly prohibited from:
A
Stipulating for or agreeing to receive any share of the proceeds of the litigation or a contingent fee based on results
✓ Correct
B
Representing an accused person in a murder trial
C
Filing an appeal in a civil suit
D
Charging an hourly consultation fee
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Canons of Professional Conduct of the PBC prohibit champerty and maintenance: An advocate shall not purchase or agree to purchase any share or interest in the actionable claim or contentious matter, nor agree to a contingent fee sharing proceeds of the judgment.
Q. 21
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the Bar Councils Act 1973, who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Pakistan Bar Council and the Provincial Bar Councils, respectively?
A
The Attorney-General for Pakistan (for PBC) and the respective Advocate-General of the Province (for Provincial Bar Councils)
✓ Correct
B
The Chief Justice of Pakistan and Provincial Chief Justices
C
The Federal Law Minister and Provincial Law Ministers
D
The President of the Supreme Court Bar Association
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 11 of the Act, the Attorney-General for Pakistan is ex-officio Chairman of the Pakistan Bar Council, and the Advocate-General of each Province is ex-officio Chairman of the respective Provincial Bar Council (Punjab, Sindh, KPK, Balochistan Bar Councils).
Q. 22
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary role of the Law and Justice Commission of Pakistan (LJCP) established under the Ordinance of 1979?
A
To systematically review, modernize, and recommend reforms in the statutes and administration of justice in Pakistan
✓ Correct
B
To decide appeals from the High Courts
C
To prosecute criminal offenders on behalf of the state
D
To conduct elections for political parties
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Law and Justice Commission of Pakistan, headed by the Chief Justice of Pakistan, is a statutory advisory body mandated with systematic reform and modernization of federal and provincial laws, judicial administration, and legal education.
Q. 23
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the hierarchy of Civil Courts established under the West Pakistan Civil Courts Ordinance 1962, what is the hierarchical order of Civil Judges from lowest to highest?
A
Civil Judge Class III, Civil Judge Class II, Civil Judge Class I, Senior Civil Judge
✓ Correct
B
Senior Civil Judge, Civil Judge Class I, Civil Judge Class II
C
Magistrate 3rd Class, Magistrate 2nd Class, Magistrate 1st Class
D
Sessions Judge, Additional Sessions Judge, Assistant Sessions Judge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the Civil Courts Ordinance 1962, civil courts in districts are graded as: Civil Judge Class III (pecuniary jurisdiction lowest), Civil Judge Class II, Civil Judge Class I (unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction), and Senior Civil Judge / District Judge.
Q. 24
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Institution of the Federal Ombudsman (Wafaqi Mohtasib) in Pakistan was established by President's Order No. 1 of 1983 to:
A
Diagnose, investigate, redress and rectify any injustice done to a person through maladministration in federal government agencies
✓ Correct
B
Conduct criminal trials of terrorists
C
Pass decrees in land partition suits
D
Regulate stock market transactions
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Wafaqi Mohtasib (Ombudsman)'s Order 1983 establishes the Federal Ombudsman to investigate and rectify maladministration (inefficiency, corruption, delay, neglect) by any agency or official of the Federal Government.
Q. 25
Judicial Studies
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the Wafaqi Mohtasib's Order 1983, which matters are expressly EXCLUDED from the jurisdiction of the Federal Ombudsman?
A
Sub-judice matters before a court of law, matters concerning foreign affairs, and matters relating to the armed forces
✓ Correct
B
Complaints against Pakistan Post or WAPDA
C
Passport and immigration service delays
D
Pension payment grievances of federal employees
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Article 9(2) of P.O. 1 of 1983 specifically excludes: (a) matters that are sub-judice before a court of competent jurisdiction or tribunal, (b) matters relating to the foreign affairs of Pakistan, and (c) matters relating to the armed forces of Pakistan.
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All 220 Solved Questions in Judicial Studies Loaded!
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Q. 1
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Spending Rs 10.00 on 50p and 20p stamps; greatest number of 50p stamps?
A
10
B
12
C
14
D
16
E
18
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
18×50p=900p. Remaining 100p allows 5×20p stamps. Total is 1000p (Rs 10).
Q. 2
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Ship: 6 miles W, 6 miles S, 6 miles W. Total distance from port?
A
9
B
11
C
13
✓ Correct
D
15
E
17
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Net displacement: 12 miles West, 6 miles South. Distance = 122+62≈13.4.
Q. 3
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much is $\frac{1}{4} of \frac{x}{4}$?
A
4x
B
x
C
$\frac{1}{x}$
D
$\frac{x}{16}$
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
$\frac{4}{4}×\frac{x}{4}=\frac{x}{16}$.
Q. 4
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is $\frac{1}{5}$ of $\frac{x}{5}$?
A
25x
B
$\frac{1}{25}$
C
$\frac{1}{x}$
D
$\frac{x}{25}$
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
$\left(\frac{1}{5}\right) \times \left(\frac{x}{5}\right) = \frac{x}{25}$
Q. 5
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Find the odd man out: 3 6 9 12 15 17
A
15
B
17
✓ Correct
C
3
D
9
E
6
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
17 is the only number in the sequence that is not a multiple of 3.
Q. 6
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Insert the missing number in Triangle grid [11, 242, 3; 13, 338, 2]
A
120
B
162
✓ Correct
C
260
D
164
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Triangle 1:
Right vertex: \(\frac{6}{2} = \mathbf{3}\)
Center: \(11^2 \times 2 = 121 \times 2 = \mathbf{242}\)
Triangle 2:
Right vertex: \(\frac{4}{2} = \mathbf{2}\)
Center: \(13^2 \times 2 = 169 \times 2 = \mathbf{338}\)
Solving for Triangle 3
Using the same pattern where \(\text{Left} = 9\) and \(\text{Bottom} = 4\):
Find the right side (?): \(\text{Right}=\frac{4}{2}=\mathbf{2}\)
Find the center (?): \(\text{Center}=9^{2}\times 2=81\times 2=\mathbf{162}\)
Right vertex: \(\frac{6}{2} = \mathbf{3}\)
Center: \(11^2 \times 2 = 121 \times 2 = \mathbf{242}\)
Triangle 2:
Right vertex: \(\frac{4}{2} = \mathbf{2}\)
Center: \(13^2 \times 2 = 169 \times 2 = \mathbf{338}\)
Solving for Triangle 3
Using the same pattern where \(\text{Left} = 9\) and \(\text{Bottom} = 4\):
Find the right side (?): \(\text{Right}=\frac{4}{2}=\mathbf{2}\)
Find the center (?): \(\text{Center}=9^{2}\times 2=81\times 2=\mathbf{162}\)
Q. 7
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Missing number in Triangle [9, 3, 7, 21; 16, ?, 21, 42]
A
8
✓ Correct
B
6
C
4
D
2
E
10
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Pattern
The number in the center is found by multiplying the left and right numbers together, then dividing by the bottom number:
\(\text{Center}=\frac{\text{Left}\times \text{Right}}{\text{Bottom}}\)
Verification
First Triangle:
\(\frac{9\times 7}{21}=\frac{63}{21}=\mathbf{3}\)
Solving for the Second TriangleSecond Triangle:
\(\frac{16\times 21}{42}=\frac{336}{42}=\mathbf{8}\)
The number in the center is found by multiplying the left and right numbers together, then dividing by the bottom number:
\(\text{Center}=\frac{\text{Left}\times \text{Right}}{\text{Bottom}}\)
Verification
First Triangle:
\(\frac{9\times 7}{21}=\frac{63}{21}=\mathbf{3}\)
Solving for the Second TriangleSecond Triangle:
\(\frac{16\times 21}{42}=\frac{336}{42}=\mathbf{8}\)
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
1 Question in this set
ANALYSIS (Direction Sense): Solve spatial reasoning problems involving multiple turns, clock hand orientations, relative positions on a grid, and displacement from a starting point.
Q. 8
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A man started walking from North to South. He turned right at right angles then again right at right angles. In which direction was he ultimately walking?
Correct Answer / Solution Key:
C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Initial Direction: The man starts walking toward the South.
First Right Turn: Facing South, turning right at a right angle makes him face West.
Second Right Turn: Facing West, turning right again at a right angle makes him face North.
First Right Turn: Facing South, turning right at a right angle makes him face West.
Second Right Turn: Facing West, turning right again at a right angle makes him face North.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
6 Questions in this set
Numerical Aptitude Tests: These tests are designed to discover whether the candidate has the basic talent for solving simple problems in numerical, arithmetic, geometry, algebra, business calculations, etc.
Q. 9
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Four squares side by side form a rectangle, perimeter 140. Area of each square?
A
400
B
360
C
300
D
256
E
196
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Let side be s. Perimeter P=2(4s+s)=10s=140⟹s=14. Area = 142=196.
Q. 10
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A man buys a television set which lists for Rs. 2000 at a 10% discount. He gets an additional 2% discount for paying cash. What does he actually pay for the set?
A
Rs. 1760
B
Rs. 1700
C
Rs. 1800
D
Rs. 1764.00
✓ Correct
E
Rs. 1720.80
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
2000×0.9=1800.
Cash discount:
1800×0.98=1764.
Cash discount:
1800×0.98=1764.
Q. 11
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
If y−7=12, then y+19= ——?
A
19
B
28
C
38
✓ Correct
D
42
E
50
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
y=12+7=19. Therefore, y+19=19+19=38.
Q. 12
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
11.5×0.003= ——?
A
0.345
B
0.0345
✓ Correct
C
0.00345
D
0.000345
E
3.45e-05
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Direct multiplication: 11.5×0.003=0.0345.
Q. 13
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
12 students average 70%. 18 others average 80%. Overall average percentage of thirty students?
A
73$\frac{3}{4}$
B
74$\frac{3}{8}$
C
75$\frac{1}{4}$
D
76
✓ Correct
E
77$\frac{1}{8}$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Weighted avg: (12×70+18×80)/30=(840+1440)/30=76.
Q. 14
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Angle RST=120; Angle RSQ=92; Angle PST=70. How many Degrees in angle PSQ?
A
40
B
42
✓ Correct
C
45
D
48
E
51
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Angle PSQ = (RSQ + PST) - RST = (92+70)−120=162−120=42.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
6 Questions in this set
Graph Analysis (Marriages & Births): The following graphs are to be used for Questions 7-12, depicting trends in young people (18-24 years), marriage rates, and birth rates from 1953 to 1968.
Q. 15
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
During which time period was there the sharpest increase in marriages?
A
1955-1956
B
1957-1958
✓ Correct
C
1961-1962
D
1964-1965
E
1967-1999
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on visual slope analysis of the "Rising Marriages" graph.
Q. 16
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What was the average number of births per year from 1967 through 1967?
A
3.7 million
B
3.55 million
✓ Correct
C
4.0 million
D
3.8 million
E
3.4 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The graph "Falling Births" shows the value for the year 1967 is approximately 3.55 million.
Q. 17
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Ratio of young people to number of births for the year 1954?
A
2.83
B
4.1
C
3.75
✓ Correct
D
8
E
2.4
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Young people (1954) ≈ 15m; Births (1954) ≈ 4m. Ratio 15/4=3.75.
Q. 18
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Marriages in 2000 if 1965-2000 rate of increase remains constant?
A
1.8 million
B
2.0 million
C
2.2 million
D
2.7 million
✓ Correct
E
2.9 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Increase over 3 years (1965 to 1968):
\(21.3 - 20.8 = 0.5\text{ units}\)
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{0.5}{3} \approx 0.1667\text{ units per year}\)
Time span from 1965 to 2000: \(2000 - 1965 = 35\text{ years}\)
Total projected increase by 2000: \(35 \times 0.1667 \approx 5.83\text{ units}\)
Projected value in 2000: \(20.8 + 5.83 = 26.63\text{ units}\)
Converting this back to the scale of millions yields approximately 2.66 million, which rounds cleanly to 2.7 million.
\(21.3 - 20.8 = 0.5\text{ units}\)
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{0.5}{3} \approx 0.1667\text{ units per year}\)
Time span from 1965 to 2000: \(2000 - 1965 = 35\text{ years}\)
Total projected increase by 2000: \(35 \times 0.1667 \approx 5.83\text{ units}\)
Projected value in 2000: \(20.8 + 5.83 = 26.63\text{ units}\)
Converting this back to the scale of millions yields approximately 2.66 million, which rounds cleanly to 2.7 million.
Q. 19
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How many marriages occurred as the final approximate total in three different years?
A
1.7 million
✓ Correct
B
1.3 million
C
1.55 million
D
1.45 million
E
1.9 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
If you look at the horizontal level of 17 (representing 1.7 million marriages) on the y-axis, the line touches or crosses this exact value at three different points in time:
1953: The graph starts right at approximately 1.7 million.
1956: The first sharp peak returns exactly to that same height of 1.7 million.
1958–1959: As the line makes its final sharp upward climb towards the 20 mark, it crosses the 1.7 million threshold for the third time.
1953: The graph starts right at approximately 1.7 million.
1956: The first sharp peak returns exactly to that same height of 1.7 million.
1958–1959: As the line makes its final sharp upward climb towards the 20 mark, it crosses the 1.7 million threshold for the third time.
Q. 20
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Govt collection 1966: Rs 200/marriage, Rs 100/birth, Rs 20/young person?
A
Rs. 260 million
B
Rs. 480 million
C
Rs. 820 million
D
Rs. 1160 million
✓ Correct
E
Rs. 1500 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Number of Marriages (Top-Right Graph):
In 1966, the marriage value is approximately 21 (which corresponds to 2.1 million marriages).
\(\text{Collection from Marriages}=2.1\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }200=\text{Rs }420 \text{ million}\)
Number of Births (Bottom Graph):
In 1966, the birth line settles right at 3.55 million births.
\(\text{Collection from Births}=3.55\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }100=\text{Rs }355\text{ million}\)
Number of Young People (Top-Left Graph):
In 1966, the line sits at approximately 19.25 million young people.
\(\text{Collection from Young People}=19.25\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }20=\text{Rs }385\text{ million}\)
Total Government Collection:
\(\text{Total Collection}=420+355+385=\text{Rs }\mathbf{1160}\text{ million}\)
In 1966, the marriage value is approximately 21 (which corresponds to 2.1 million marriages).
\(\text{Collection from Marriages}=2.1\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }200=\text{Rs }420 \text{ million}\)
Number of Births (Bottom Graph):
In 1966, the birth line settles right at 3.55 million births.
\(\text{Collection from Births}=3.55\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }100=\text{Rs }355\text{ million}\)
Number of Young People (Top-Left Graph):
In 1966, the line sits at approximately 19.25 million young people.
\(\text{Collection from Young People}=19.25\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }20=\text{Rs }385\text{ million}\)
Total Government Collection:
\(\text{Total Collection}=420+355+385=\text{Rs }\mathbf{1160}\text{ million}\)
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
5 Questions in this set
Pie Chart Analysis: Questions 15-19 are based on the pie charts below showing Insurance Death Benefits Payments in the U.S. in 1992 and 2002.
Q. 21
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Central angle of the sector for Industrial Insurance (1992)?
A
28
B
30
C
32
D
34
E
36
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Industrial = 10% of 360 degrees = 36 degrees.
Q. 22
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
If 50m paid in 2001, how many millions were from Group insurance?
A
13
B
14.5
C
16
D
17.5
✓ Correct
E
19
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Total growth over the 10-year period (1992 to 2002): \(35\% - 25\% = 10\%\)
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{10\%}{10\text{ years}} = 1\%\text{ per year}\)
Projected percentage for 2001 (9 years after 1992): \(25\% + (9 \times 1\%) = 34\%\)
Amount from Group Insurance (out of 50 million):\(50\text{ million}\times 34\%=50\times 0.34=17.0\text{ million}\)
Among the given multiple-choice options, 17.5 (D) is the closest standard approximation used for this dataset.
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{10\%}{10\text{ years}} = 1\%\text{ per year}\)
Projected percentage for 2001 (9 years after 1992): \(25\% + (9 \times 1\%) = 34\%\)
Amount from Group Insurance (out of 50 million):\(50\text{ million}\times 34\%=50\times 0.34=17.0\text{ million}\)
Among the given multiple-choice options, 17.5 (D) is the closest standard approximation used for this dataset.
Q. 23
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the 1992, what was the ratio of the payments from Group insurance to those of Group insurance?
A
5:2
✓ Correct
B
5:1
C
3:2
D
3:1
E
5:3
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ratio = 25% (Group) : 10% (Industrial) = 25 : 10 = 5 : 2.
Q. 24
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What was the approximate percentage increase in Group insurance payments from 1992 to 2002, if the total insurance payments were the same in both years?
A
30
B
35
C
40
✓ Correct
D
45
E
50
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Increase from 25% to 35% of the total. Relative increase: (35−25)/25=40%.
Q. 25
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
If 50m paid in 2002, millions from Industrial Insurance?
A
5
B
6
✓ Correct
C
7
D
8
E
10
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
2002 Industrial = 12%. 50×0.12=6.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Choose the correct answer for the following Pakistan Studies questions:
Q. 1
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which province of Pakistan is called Bab-ul-Islam?
A
Punjab
B
Sindh
✓ Correct
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Balochistan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sindh is known as the "Gateway of Islam" because it was the first region conquered by Muslims.
Q. 2
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim during the ____ period.
A
Umayyads
✓ Correct
B
Abbasids
C
Tulun
D
Idrisids
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The conquest occurred during the reign of the Umayyad Caliph Al-Walid I.
Q. 3
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim was the nephew of
A
Sulayman bin Abdul Malik
B
Abdul Malik bin Marwan
C
Walid bin Abdul Malik
D
Hajjaj bin Yousaf
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the nephew and son-in-law of Hajjaj, the governor of Iraq.
Q. 4
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim in ____ A.D.
A
712
✓ Correct
B
713
C
714
D
715
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The decisive campaign against Raja Dahir culminated in the victory of 712 AD.
Q. 5
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was the ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Dehli
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the last Hindu king of the Brahman dynasty in Sindh.
Q. 6
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was defeated by
A
Yazid bin Mulhib
B
Muhammad bin Qasim
✓ Correct
C
Tariq bin Ziyad
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The young Arab general defeated Dahir at the Battle of Aror.
Q. 7
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Debul and Alor are the names of
A
Places of Ancient Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Old Gardens of Sindh
C
Old Games of Sindh
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Debul was a seaport and Alor (Aror) was the capital of Sindh.
Q. 8
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Chach Nama is the ancient history of
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Rawalpindi
D
Sindh
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This historical work details the Chach Dynasty and the Arab conquest of Sindh.
Q. 9
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Makli Hill is the name of ____ which is situated in province of Sindh.
A
Graveyard
✓ Correct
B
Playground
C
Ancient building
D
Local dance
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Makli is one of the largest necropolises (cemeteries) in the world.
Q. 10
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Chach?
A
Father of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
B
Son of Raja Dahir
C
Son in law of Dahir
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chach of Aror was the founder of the Brahman dynasty and Dahir's father.
Q. 11
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Sisakar?
A
Wazir of Hajjaj bin Yousaf
B
Wazir of Muhammad bin Qasim
C
Wazir of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the Prime Minister of Raja Dahir who later joined the Muslim side.
Q. 12
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mohenjodaro is located in ____
A
Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Baluchistan
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Punjab
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This Indus Valley Civilization site is located in the Larkana District of Sindh.
Q. 13
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Al-Arus a huge balista used by Muhammad bin Qasim during the conquest of ____
A
Lahore
B
Depalpur
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Peshawar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Al-Arus was a massive catapult used to breach the walls of Debul in Sindh.
Q. 14
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim tortured to death in a prison in Iraq during the caliphate of ____
A
Sulaiman
✓ Correct
B
Walid
C
Yazid
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the death of Walid I and Hajjaj, Caliph Sulaiman bin Abdul Malik imprisoned him.
Q. 15
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 133 A.H/750 A.D. the Abbasids overthrew the ____
A
Safvids
B
Mughals
C
Umayyads
✓ Correct
D
Meds
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Abbasid Revolution ended the rule of the Umayyad dynasty.
Q. 16
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The Abbasids Governor came to Sindh in 140 A.H./757 A.D.
A
Hisham
B
Walid
C
Musa
✓ Correct
D
Yasir
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Musa bin Ka'b al-Tamimi was the first Abbasid governor of Sindh.
Q. 17
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Waihind (Modern Hund in District Attock) was the capital of ____
A
Umayyads
B
Abbassids
C
Mughals
D
Hindu Shahis
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hund served as the second capital of the Hindu Shahi kingdom.
Q. 18
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 367 A.H/777 A.D, Subuktigin, a Turkish slave become the master of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Depalpur
D
Ghazni
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sebuktigin founded the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan.
Q. 19
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Subuktigin died in August 997 A.D and was... succeeded by his brilliant and ambitious son, ____
A
Ahmad
B
Mahmood
✓ Correct
C
Ayaz
D
Arsalan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni succeeded his father and expanded the empire into India.
Q. 20
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood’s first important battle was fought against ____ near Peshawar in 8 Muharram 392 A.H 25 November 1001 A.D.
A
Jaipal
✓ Correct
B
Sukhpal
C
Anandpal
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud defeated the Shahi King Jaipal at the Battle of Peshawar.
Q. 21
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abu-al-Fath Daud was the Ismaili ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
✓ Correct
C
Sindh
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud of Ghazni conquered Multan from the Ismaili ruler Abul Fath Daud.
Q. 22
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood set out on the expedition to Somnath on 17 October ____
A
1023 A.D
B
1024 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1025 A.D
D
1026 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The expedition to the famous temple took place between 1024 and 1025.
Q. 23
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood breathed his last sigh on 30 April ____
A
1024 A.D.
B
1026 A.D.
C
1028 A.D.
D
1030 A.D.
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud passed away in Ghazni in the year 1030.
Q. 24
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D the first battle of Traain was fought between Muhammad Ghauri and Rajputs... Muhammad Ghauri defeated in this battle.
A
1189
B
1190
C
1191
✓ Correct
D
1192
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghauri in the first engagement at Tarain.
Q. 25
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D. the second battle of Train was fought and Rajputs defeated in this battle.
A
1190
B
1191
C
1192
✓ Correct
D
1193
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ghauri returned a year later and decisively defeated the Rajput confederacy.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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