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Instructions / Reading Passage
11 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE TEST (Basic Computer Knowledge): Write the correct answer for the provided multiple-choice questions involving expert systems, industrial computer applications (POS, CIM, Actuarial accounting), and management information system (MIS) modeling.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Expert systems are part of the general area of research known as
A
AI
✓ Correct
B
ES
C
STUDENT
D
RAND
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broad field that encompasses the development of expert systems.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the future, users of a computer system may identify themselves by entering a:
A
Hard print
B
Soft print
C
Voice print
✓ Correct
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Biometric identification methods include voice recognition (voice prints) for user authentication.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The most prominent system in the retail sales industry is the ________ system:
A
POS (point-of-scale)
✓ Correct
B
COBOL
C
ACM
D
PC/XT
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Point of Sale systems are standard for managing transactions and inventory in retail.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The integration of the computer with manufacturing is called CIM or
A
CAM
B
CAD
C
Computer manufacturing
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the full automation of a manufacturing facility.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A ________ purpose computer is designed for a specific application:
A
Special
✓ Correct
B
Analog
C
Hybrid
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special-purpose computers are built to perform one specific set of tasks or applications.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Actuarial accounting system is associated with the ________ industry:
A
Insurance
✓ Correct
B
Reliable
C
Consistent
D
Exhaustive
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Actuarial science is primarily used by the insurance industry to assess risk and uncertainty.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A variable that has no physical meaning and is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to a linear programming problem is known as:
A
Basis
B
Algorithm
C
Artificial variable
✓ Correct
D
Basic variable
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In linear programming, artificial variables are used to facilitate finding an initial feasible solution.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
QUB is an example of ________ systems:
A
Problem-solving
B
Inventory
C
Electronic shopping
✓ Correct
D
Algebra
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QUB (historically standing for Queen's University Belfast Electronic Shopping System experiment or similar early regional academic network paradigms referenced in localized commerce and MIS curriculums) is categorized as an early or specialized example of an Electronic shopping system or transactional network.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A
True
✓ Correct
B
False
C
Cannot be said
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Slack in project management represents the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the deadline.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The latest time that the event can be delayed without delaying the completion of the entire project in PERT chart is:
A
Earliest allowable time
B
Latest allowable time
✓ Correct
C
Earliest pass
D
Latest pass
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This term defines the absolute deadline for a specific node in a PERT network.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Anthony suggested that the area of management planning and control be segmented into:
A
Operational control
B
Strategic planning
C
Management control
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anthony's framework includes Strategic Planning, Management Control, and Operational Control.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
14 Questions in this set
SYSTEMS AND DECISION-MAKING: Solve questions regarding transaction processing, data collection terminals, operations research history, and the files required for receiving and engineering control systems.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following does not fall in the personal Decision-Making Area?
A
Pay-rolls
B
Cash flow analysis
✓ Correct
C
Income-tax assessment and recovery
D
Person's experience
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cash flow analysis is typically an organizational or corporate financial function rather than personal.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much should an organisation spend for information can be determined by some type of a:
A
Cost analysis
B
Benefit analysis
C
Cost-benefit analysis
✓ Correct
D
Any of the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Organisations weigh the cost of data acquisition against the value/benefit it provides.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A transportation problem in which the total supply available at the origins exactly satisfies the total demand required at the destinations is known as:
A
Degenerate solution
B
Balanced transportation problem
✓ Correct
C
Unbalanced transportation problem
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A "Balanced" problem occurs when total supply equals total demand.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Operations Research came into being due to:
A
Medical reasons
B
Military reasons
✓ Correct
C
Educational reasons
D
To improve transpiration
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Operations Research originated for tactical and logistical planning during World War II.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The funds management subsystems attempts to:
A
Increase cash input
B
Decrease cash output
C
Balance cash inflow with outflow
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Effective funds management ensures liquidity by matching timing of inflows and outflows.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A turnaround document can be a(n):
A
Punched card
B
OCR document
C
Neither nor (b)
✓ Correct
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the specific classification of turnaround documents in the source answer key.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the financial Decision-Making system which of the following is not a transaction processing system input:
A
Cash receipts
B
Cash returns
C
Cash issues
D
Warehouse requisition ship
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Requisition slips are inventory/logistics inputs rather than direct financial transaction inputs.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Header labels contain:
A
Creation data
✓ Correct
B
Control totals
C
Both and (b)
D
Either nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File headers typically store metadata such as the creation date and file ID.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Detected money errors are corrected with:
A
Debit entries
B
Credit entries
C
Both and (b)
✓ Correct
D
Neither nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adjustments for errors require offsetting debit or credit entries depending on the nature of the error.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The model base contains programs:
A
Written by the firm's programmers
B
Provided by the computer vendor
C
Purchased from outside firms, such as software houses
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Decision Support System's model base can incorporate software from various origins.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Management has become more complex because:
A
There is less time to react to competitive actions
B
The equipment used in many of the firm's activities has become more complex
C
Firms have become larger
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Global competition, technological complexity, and organizational scale contribute to management difficulty.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What data most likely would not be keyed into the order entry subsystem?
A
Item quantity
B
Customer number
C
Item number
D
Item cost
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Costs are usually master data retrieved from a file rather than manually keyed per order.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The engineering change control system makes changes in the:
A
Operations file
✓ Correct
B
Production schedule
C
Work force data
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Design changes directly impact the steps and specifications in the operations file.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Corporate modeling software can be used for:
A
Cash planning
B
Operational budgeting
C
Capital budgeting
D
All the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modeling software assists in various strategic and operational planning tasks.
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Q. 1
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In the 3-tier IoT architecture, which layer is responsible for data acquisition from physical transducers and edge actuation?
A
Perception / Sensing Layer
✓ Correct
B
Network / Transport Layer
C
Application / Presentation Layer
D
Business / Analytics Layer
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Perception Layer consists of physical sensors (temperature, seismic, water level), actuators, and RFID/barcode tags that interact directly with the physical environment.
Q. 2
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is the primary physical layer modulation technique used by LoRa (Long Range) wireless technology?
A
Chirp Spread Spectrum (CSS) modulation
✓ Correct
B
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM)
C
Binary Phase Shift Keying (BPSK)
D
Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
LoRa utilizes Chirp Spread Spectrum (CSS), where data is encoded using linear chirps (up-chirps and down-chirps) to provide exceptional resistance to multipath fading and Doppler shifts.
Q. 3
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In LoRaWAN networks, what is 'Spreading Factor' (SF7 to SF12), and what is the trade-off of using higher spreading factors (e.g. SF12)?
A
Higher SF increases link budget and communication range (higher sensitivity) at the expense of lower data rates and longer time-on-air (higher battery consumption)
✓ Correct
B
Higher SF increases data rate but reduces transmission range
C
Higher SF consumes less battery power and sends data faster
D
Higher SF eliminates the need for gateways
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
SF12 provides up to ~15-20 km range and -137 dBm sensitivity, but transmits at only ~250 bps, increasing airtime and battery usage.
Q. 4
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which LoRaWAN Device Class is designed for ultra-low power battery operation where the node only opens two short receive windows (RX1 and RX2) immediately after uplink transmission?
A
Class A (All / Battery Powered End-devices)
✓ Correct
B
Class B (Beacon / Synchronized receive slots)
C
Class C (Continuous / Mains powered listen mode)
D
Class D (Direct device-to-device mode)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Class A is the most energy-efficient mode because the radio transceiver remains in deep sleep mode until the sensor wakes up to transmit an uplink packet.
Q. 5
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the difference between LoRaWAN Class B and Class C devices?
A
Class B opens scheduled receive windows synchronized by gateway beacons; Class C keeps its receiver continuously open except when transmitting
✓ Correct
B
Class B is for satellites; Class C is for mobile phones
C
Class B operates on 5 GHz; Class C operates on 2.4 GHz
D
Class B has zero latency; Class C has 10 second delay
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Class C devices offer lowest downlink latency because they listen constantly, but require continuous mains electrical power.
Q. 6
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What transport layer protocol does MQTT (Message Queuing Telemetry Transport) operate on top of, and what is its default unencrypted TCP port?
A
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol); Port 1883
✓ Correct
B
UDP (User Datagram Protocol); Port 53
C
HTTP; Port 80
D
SCTP; Port 443
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
MQTT is a lightweight publish-subscribe messaging protocol that runs over reliable TCP connection on Port 1883 (or TLS Port 8883).
Q. 7
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In MQTT messaging, what does 'QoS Level 1' (At least once) guarantee?
A
The message is guaranteed to arrive at the broker/subscriber at least once, with delivery confirmed via PUBACK packet, though duplicates may occur
✓ Correct
B
The message is delivered at most once with no acknowledgment (fire and forget)
C
The message is delivered exactly once using a 4-way handshake (PUBLISH, PUBREC, PUBREL, PUBCOMP)
D
The message is dropped if bandwidth drops below 1 Mbps
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QoS 0 is 'At most once', QoS 1 is 'At least once' (PUBACK), and QoS 2 is 'Exactly once' (4-step handshake).
Q. 8
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In MQTT protocol, what is the 'Last Will and Testament' (LWT) feature used for in disaster telemetry?
A
A pre-configured message stored on the broker that is automatically published to subscribers if the sensor node ungracefully disconnects or suffers sudden power failure
✓ Correct
B
A legal document signed by the sensor manufacturer
C
A message sent right before a planned software update
D
An encryption key for securing data
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
LWT allows central disaster management servers (NEOC) to instantly detect when a river flood sensor has been destroyed or swept away by floodwaters.
Q. 9
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is CoAP (Constrained Application Protocol), and how does its transport layer architecture differ from MQTT?
A
CoAP is a RESTful request/response protocol (GET, POST, PUT, DELETE) running over UDP (Port 5683) with minimal 4-byte header overhead for resource-constrained microcontrollers
✓ Correct
B
CoAP runs over TCP only with 100-byte headers
C
CoAP uses publish-subscribe architecture over WebSockets
D
CoAP is a video streaming protocol
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
CoAP brings web architecture (URIs and REST methods) to microcontrollers over UDP, avoiding TCP connection establishment overhead.
Q. 10
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is 'Confirmable Message' (CON) in CoAP protocol?
A
A message that requires an explicit Acknowledgment (ACK) packet from the receiver, providing reliable transport over connectionless UDP with exponential backoff retransmission
✓ Correct
B
A message encrypted with a password
C
A broadcast message sent to all devices
D
A message confirming user identity
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
CoAP CON messages implement lightweight reliability on top of UDP without incurring the continuous state overhead of TCP.
Q. 11
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is 'NB-IoT' (Narrowband IoT / LTE Cat-NB1/NB2) standardized by 3GPP?
A
A cellular LPWAN standard that operates in a narrow 180 kHz carrier bandwidth, offering deep indoor penetration (+20 dB link budget over GSM) and 10+ year battery life
✓ Correct
B
A high-speed 5G broadband service for 4K video streaming
C
A satellite TV broadcasting standard
D
A short-range Bluetooth replacement
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NB-IoT reuses existing cellular base station infrastructure, providing nationwide cellular connectivity for smart utility meters and flood warning stations.
Q. 12
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What are the three deployment modes supported by NB-IoT in cellular spectrum?
A
Stand-Alone (in dedicated GSM carriers), Guard-Band (in LTE carrier guard bands), and In-Band (within standard LTE resource blocks)
✓ Correct
B
Indoor, Outdoor, and Underground
C
Morning, Afternoon, and Night mode
D
Low power, Medium power, and Maximum power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
NB-IoT's flexible 180 kHz spectrum allocation allows cellular operators to deploy IoT coverage inside existing 4G LTE bandwidth.
Q. 13
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is 'LTE-M' (eMTC / LTE Cat-M1) compared to NB-IoT?
A
LTE-M offers higher data rates (~1 Mbps), lower latency, voice support (VoLTE), and full cell-to-cell mobility handover, whereas NB-IoT is optimized for stationary, low-throughput sensors
✓ Correct
B
LTE-M operates without cellular towers
C
LTE-M has shorter battery life than Wi-Fi
D
There is no difference between them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
LTE-M is preferred for mobile emergency vehicle telemetry and wearable personnel trackers that require seamless cell handover and voice communication.
Q. 14
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is '6LoWPAN' (IPv6 over Low-Power Wireless Personal Area Networks)?
A
An adaptation layer protocol (RFC 4944) that enables 128-bit IPv6 packets to be transmitted over constrained 127-byte IEEE 802.15.4 wireless frame links via header compression and fragmentation
✓ Correct
B
A 6-port local area network switch
C
A power supply standard for microcontrollers
D
A wireless protocol for 6-rotor drones
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
6LoWPAN compresses bulky 40-byte IPv6 headers down to as little as 2-4 bytes, giving every individual sensor node its own native routable IP address.
Q. 15
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is 'RPL' (Routing Protocol for Low-Power and Lossy Networks)?
A
A distance-vector routing protocol that builds a Destination-Oriented Directed Acyclic Graph (DODAG) rooted at the gateway to route packets across multi-hop WSN mesh networks
✓ Correct
B
A programming language for microcontrollers
C
A radio power amplifier circuit
D
A file format for saving sensor logs
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
RPL is the standard routing protocol for 6LoWPAN mesh sensor networks deployed across large disaster zones.
Q. 16
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In IEEE 802.15.4 standard (the foundation of Zigbee and Thread), what are the frequency bands and maximum data rates?
A
2.4 GHz ISM band (up to 250 kbps), and sub-GHz bands: 868 MHz Europe (20 kbps) and 915 MHz North America (40 kbps)
✓ Correct
B
5.8 GHz band with 1 Gbps data rate
C
FM radio band (88-108 MHz) with 10 bps
D
Satellite Ku-band with 100 Mbps
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
IEEE 802.15.4 defines low-rate physical and MAC layer specifications for low-power wireless personal area networks.
Q. 17
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is 'Zigbee' network topology model?
A
A self-healing, multi-hop mesh network consisting of a single Coordinator (ZC), multiple Routers (ZR), and End Devices (ZED) that sleep periodically
✓ Correct
B
A single star topology with no repeaters
C
A point-to-point physical cable connection
D
A ring topology requiring fiber optic cables
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Zigbee mesh topology allows sensor readings to hop across dozens of intermediate nodes to reach a central disaster gateway beyond single-hop radio range.
Q. 18
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is 'Thread' protocol in IoT smart building and emergency sensing?
A
An open, IPv6-based, low-power mesh networking technology built on IEEE 802.15.4 and 6LoWPAN, featuring no single point of failure and native IP routing
✓ Correct
B
A multi-threaded software compiler
C
A physical sewing thread used in wearables
D
A brand of Wi-Fi router
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Unlike Zigbee which requires application-layer translation bridges, Thread routes IPv6 packets end-to-end directly to cloud servers.
Q. 19
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is 'BLE Mesh' (Bluetooth Low Energy Mesh)?
A
A flood-based multi-hop mesh networking standard running over Bluetooth 4.0/5.0 advertising channels, allowing thousands of BLE nodes to communicate without central routers
✓ Correct
B
A wireless headset for playing music
C
A Bluetooth file transfer software
D
A technique for charging batteries wirelessly
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BLE Mesh uses managed flooding to propagate emergency evacuation beacon alerts and building sensor alerts across entire facilities.
Q. 20
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is '5G mMTC' (massive Machine-Type Communications)?
A
A 5G ITU-R service category engineered to support high connection densities of up to 1 million IoT devices per square kilometer (1,000,000 devices/km²) with ultra-low power consumption
✓ Correct
B
5G enhanced Mobile Broadband for smartphones
C
Ultra-Reliable Low-Latency Communication for remote surgery
D
A military satellite radar protocol
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
5G mMTC handles the astronomical density of environmental, seismic, and municipal smart sensors deployed in smart disaster-resilient cities.
Q. 21
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is 'CSMA/CA' (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) in wireless sensor MAC protocols?
A
A contention-based channel access method where nodes listen to the radio frequency channel (Clear Channel Assessment) before transmitting, using random backoff if busy to avoid collisions
✓ Correct
B
A method where nodes transmit continuously at maximum power
C
A schedule where each node has a fixed assigned time slot
D
A technique for encrypting radio packets
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
CSMA/CA avoids collision destruction of wireless packets when hundreds of independent sensors attempt to broadcast simultaneously.
Q. 22
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is 'Duty Cycling' in Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)?
A
The fraction of time a sensor node radio remains active (listening/transmitting) compared to its sleep time (e.g. 1% duty cycle = active 10ms, sleep 990ms) to achieve multi-year battery life
✓ Correct
B
The warranty life cycle of a sensor in months
C
The work hours of a maintenance technician
D
The voltage variation of a solar panel
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Aggressive duty cycling (<1% active radio time) is the primary technique that allows battery-powered flood and seismic sensors to operate unattended for 5-10 years.
Q. 23
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is 'Energy Harvesting' in autonomous disaster sensor nodes?
A
Capturing ambient environmental energy (solar photovoltaic, thermoelectric gradients, piezoelectric vibration, RF energy) to continuously recharge internal supercapacitors/batteries
✓ Correct
B
Harvesting crops during agricultural seasons
C
Burning wood to generate heat in winter
D
Storing food rations in an emergency shelter
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Solar and vibrational energy harvesting allows environmental monitoring stations on remote mountain slopes to operate indefinitely without battery replacement.
Q. 24
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is 'Time Slotted Channel Hopping' (TSCH / IEEE 802.15.4e)?
A
A deterministic MAC protocol combining time division multiple access (TDMA) with pseudo-random frequency hopping across 16 channels to achieve 99.999% industrial wireless reliability
✓ Correct
B
Hopping across Wi-Fi networks in a coffee shop
C
Changing TV channels with a remote control
D
A software tool for syncing calendar appointments
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
TSCH eliminates multi-path fading and external RF interference, providing carrier-grade wireless reliability in metal-heavy industrial and refinery disaster zones.
Q. 25
Smart Sensing & IoT
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is 'RSSI' (Received Signal Strength Indicator) and 'SNR' (Signal-to-Noise Ratio) in wireless link quality assessment?
A
RSSI measures total received RF power in dBm (typically -30 dBm strong to -120 dBm weak); SNR measures the ratio of true signal power to background noise floor (positive dB is cleaner)
✓ Correct
B
RSSI measures battery voltage; SNR measures temperature
C
RSSI measures download speed; SNR measures upload speed
D
There is no difference between them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In LoRa and wireless networks, an RSSI of -80 dBm with SNR of +8 dB indicates a strong, pristine link; -125 dBm with SNR of -15 dB indicates extreme edge of reception.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
15 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE (Word Processing Basics): Solve multiple-choice questions regarding MS Word document creation, the Ribbon interface, the Office button, and basic formatting tools like Live Preview and the Mini toolbar.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Word processing programs are used to create:
A
Reports
B
Memos and letters
C
Envelopes and labels
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Word processors are versatile tools designed for a wide range of professional and personal document types.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Word processing includes the process of:
A
Entering text
B
Editing text
C
Formatting document
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The workflow involves inputting raw text, modifying content, and applying visual styles.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
________ button is located on the top left corner of Word screen:
A
Microsoft Office button
✓ Correct
B
Ribbon
C
Microsoft Home
D
Save
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In Word 2007, this button houses file management commands like Open, Save, and Print.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The ________ is the panel at the top of the document:
A
Ribbons
✓ Correct
B
Office button
C
Tab
D
Quick Access Toolbar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ribbon is the primary interface element that organizes commands into logical groups and tabs.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Tabs that organize commands into groups are located on the ________ in Word:
A
Ribbon
✓ Correct
B
Office button
C
Status bar
D
Quick Access Toolbar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ribbon architecture uses tabs to categorize related functions for easier user access.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The most common commands such as Open, Print, and Save can be found on the:
A
Insert tab
B
Format tab
C
Home tab
D
Office menu
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Primary file handling and output commands are centralized in the Office menu/button.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A special toolbar that is used to format currently selected text is referred to as the:
A
Quick Access tool bar
B
Shortcut toolbar.
C
Mini toolbar
✓ Correct
D
Formatting toolbar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Mini Toolbar appears automatically near the selection to provide quick formatting options.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The feature that allows you to see the result of formatting changes on selected text before applying the formatting is referred to as:
A
Current Preview
B
Format Preview
C
Live Preview
✓ Correct
D
Quick Preview
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Live Preview gives an instantaneous visual update of how a style will look before it is finalized.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Change to a different tab by clicking the tab:
A
Number
B
Name
✓ Correct
C
Color
D
All of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Users navigate between functional areas of the Ribbon by clicking the specific tab names.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The Home tab contains all of the following groups EXCEPT group:
A
Editing
B
Clipboard
C
Font
D
File
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File management is handled by the Office button/menu, not the Home tab groups.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Where is the status bar located in Word?
A
On the left
B
On the right
C
Below the Ribbon
D
At the bottom
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Status Bar is fixed at the base of the window to display page numbers and word counts.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The status bar in Word contains all of the following EXCEPT the:
A
Total number of words
B
Filename
✓ Correct
C
Total number of pages
D
Current page of the document
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Filenames are typically displayed in the Title Bar at the top, not the Status Bar.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Where is the Zoom slider located?
A
On the right side of the Ribbon
B
Below the title bar
C
On the right edge of the status bar
✓ Correct
D
On the right side of office button
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The slider allows for quick adjustment of document magnification from the bottom right corner.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following contain on the status bar of Word?
A
View commands
✓ Correct
B
Minitoolbar
C
Quick Access toolbar
D
Gallery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Shortcut buttons for switching document layouts (Print, Web, etc.) are found on the Status Bar.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Where is the Print Preview command found?
A
On the status bar
B
On the Office menu
✓ Correct
C
On the Print tab
D
On the Title- bar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Print Preview is part of the Print sub-menu located within the main Office button menu.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
10 Questions in this set
MS WORD NAVIGATION & MODES: Write the correct answer for questions involving document views (Print Layout, Draft, Full Screen), zoom controls, and shortcut keys for new documents and saving.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The default document name at the start of MS Word is:
A
Document1
✓ Correct
B
File1
C
WPD1
D
Word1
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Word assigns generic sequential names to new unsaved documents starting with Document1.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following allows you to look at the document to determine how a printed copy will display?
A
Print Preview
✓ Correct
B
Document Preview
C
View side by side
D
Full Screen Reading
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This mode accurately represents the final physical layout of the document on paper.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which button controls the magnification of the document that is displayed?
A
Grow
B
Enlarge
C
Zoom
✓ Correct
D
Expand
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Zoom tool allows users to increase or decrease the visual size of the text on screen.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which view is the default in Word?
A
Print Layout
✓ Correct
B
Draft View
C
Outline View
D
Full screen Reading view
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Print Layout is the standard working view as it shows margins, headers, and footers.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which view removes tabs from the display on your screen?
A
Print Layout
B
Draft view
C
Outline View
D
Full screen Reading view
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This mode maximizes screen space for reading by hiding editing tools and ribbons.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Area in which text is entered, manipulated & viewed is called:
A
Text area
B
Documentation area
C
Document window
✓ Correct
D
Window
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The central workspace where users directly interact with document content.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following document view is best for typing and editing quickly?
A
Draft view
✓ Correct
B
Web Layout view
C
Document view
D
Outline view
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Draft view is specifically optimized for quick text entry, rapid typing, and simple content editing. It hides complex formatting elements—such as headers, footers, page borders, margins, and graphics. This uncluttered workspace saves system memory and lets you focus entirely on your content without layout distractions.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which key is used for creating a new document?
A
CTRL+N
✓ Correct
B
ALT+N
C
CTRL+SHIFT+N
D
ALT+SHIFT+N
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The standard Windows and Office keyboard shortcut for initiating a blank new file.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following command is used store another copy of existing document with different name or as a different format?
A
Save As
✓ Correct
B
Store
C
Copy
D
Convert
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Save As allows for file duplication or changing file extensions/locations.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Key for renaming a file is:
A
F4
B
F2
✓ Correct
C
CTRL+F3
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
F2 is the universal Windows shortcut to initiate renaming of a selected file or item.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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