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DISPENSER (MARKET COMPETITIVE) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers

Private Sector Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank

8924 Total Questions
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4 Subject Areas
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🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy

📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass

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Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide

Candidate Selection Architecture for DISPENSER (BS-16)

📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint

The competitive recruitment screening for DISPENSER (BS-16) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Pharmacy, English Language Comprehension, General Knowledge, and Pakistan Affairs. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.

Examination Subject / Question Type Target Marks Weightage Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark
Pharmacy 50 MCQs 50% Dispensing of prescription medications, Pharmaceutical ethics and patient confidentiality, Storage and handling of pharmaceuticals
English Language Comprehension 20 MCQs 20% Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension
General Knowledge 15 MCQs 15% World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts
Pakistan Affairs 15 MCQs 15% Constitutional history, Pakistan movement, national affairs, economy

💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios

Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:

Scenario 1: Authentic Practical Scenario 1 for Dispenser

Operational Dilemma: A patient comes in with a new prescription and requests a refill. The prescription has been altered without a doctor's signature.

💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Verify the prescription with the prescribing physician, explain the policy regarding alterations, and provide alternative options if necessary.
Standard: Prescription alteration policies and patient communication standards
Scenario 2: Authentic Practical Scenario 2 for Dispenser

Operational Dilemma: A patient reports experiencing severe side effects from a medication.

💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Document the side effects, contact the prescribing physician, and provide appropriate advice or referral.
Standard: Medication side effect reporting procedures and patient safety protocols
Scenario 3: Authentic Practical Scenario 3 for Dispenser

Operational Dilemma: There is a shortage of a specific medication in the inventory.

💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Contact the supplier, update the inventory system, and inform the prescribing physician of the situation.
Standard: Inventory management and supply chain coordination

🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview

Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.

Q1: What are your responsibilities as a Dispenser?
Model Response: My responsibilities include preparing and dispensing medications, maintaining patient records, and ensuring compliance with pharmaceutical regulations.
Q2: How do you ensure patient confidentiality?
Model Response: I maintain strict confidentiality by securely storing patient information and only discussing it with authorized personnel who need to know.
Q3: Can you describe a situation where you had to handle a difficult patient request?
Model Response: In such situations, I remain calm, listen to the patient's concerns, and provide clear, professional guidance while adhering to ethical standards.
Q4: How do you manage inventory to ensure that medications are available when needed?
Model Response: I regularly check inventory levels, order supplies as needed, and maintain accurate records to ensure medications are available promptly

📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap

Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:

  • Days 1-5: Pharmacy Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
  • Days 6-8: English Language Comprehension Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
  • Days 9-11: General Knowledge & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
  • Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
  • Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.

✅ 5. Examination Day Protocol & Merit Optimization Strategy

Candidates appearing for the DISPENSER (BS-16) (BS-16) screening examination should strictly observe official test center protocols: carry the original CNIC, printed Roll Number Slip, and black or blue ballpoint pens for OMR bubble shading. Allocate the first 45 minutes to high-confidence questions in Pharmacy and English Language Comprehension before attempting multi-step analytical items. Maintain a minimum 80% accuracy rate across attempted items to absorb any negative marking deductions and secure a top-decile merit ranking for the Departmental Selection Committee interview.

Q. 1 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
According to the Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS), a Class II drug is characterized by:
A
High solubility and high permeability
B
Low solubility and high permeability
✓ Correct
C
High solubility and low permeability
D
Low solubility and low permeability
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Class I = High Solubility/High Permeability; Class II = Low Solubility/High Permeability; Class III = High Solubility/Low Permeability; Class IV = Low Solubility/Low Permeability.
Q. 2 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
The rate of dissolution of a solid drug in a solvent is quantitatively described by which equation?
A
Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
B
Noyes-Whitney equation
✓ Correct
C
Michaelis-Menten equation
D
Stokes' law
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Noyes-Whitney equation (dC/dt = DA(Cs - C)/h) describes the rate of dissolution of spherical solid particles in a diffusion layer.
Q. 3 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
The partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body is termed:
A
Capping
✓ Correct
B
Lamination
C
Mottling
D
Sticking
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Capping is the partial or complete detachment of the top or bottom face of a tablet from the main body due to air entrapment during compression.
Q. 4 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which mathematical law governs the sedimentation rate of particles in a pharmaceutical suspension?
A
Fick's first law of diffusion
B
Stokes' law
✓ Correct
C
Poiseuille's law
D
Beer-Lambert law
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Stokes' Law determines the sedimentation velocity (v) of spherical particles suspended in a liquid medium under the influence of gravity.
Q. 5 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In emulsion formulation, a surfactant with a Hydrophile-Lipophile Balance (HLB) value of 3 to 6 is best suited as a:
A
Solubilizing agent
B
Water-in-oil (w/o) emulsifier
✓ Correct
C
Oil-in-water (o/w) emulsifier
D
Detergent
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Surfactants with low HLB values (3-6) are lipophilic and favor water-in-oil (w/o) emulsions, whereas high HLB values (8-16) favor oil-in-water (o/w) emulsions.
Q. 6 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which tablet coating defect is characterized by an uneven distribution of color on the tablet surface?
A
Picking
B
Orange peel effect
C
Mottling
✓ Correct
D
Bridging
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mottling is an unequal distribution of coloring on a tablet surface with light or dark spots appearing on a uniform background.
Q. 7 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which of the following excipients is primarily used as a superdisintegrant in solid oral dosage forms?
A
Microcrystalline cellulose
B
Crosscarmellose sodium
✓ Correct
C
Magnesium stearate
D
Talc
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Crosscarmellose sodium, sodium starch glycolate, and crospovidone are superdisintegrants that rapidly swell upon contact with water to break tablets apart.
Q. 8 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which official test assesses the physical strength of tablets against mechanical shock and abrasion during manufacturing and shipping?
A
Disintegration test
B
Friability test
✓ Correct
C
Dissolution test
D
Hardness test
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Friability testing, performed using a Roche friabilator, measures weight loss (standard limit is normally < 1.0%) after tumbling tablets at 25 rpm for 4 minutes (100 revolutions).
Q. 9 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
The bacterial endotoxin test (BET) in pharmaceutical sterile products primarily utilizes:
A
Rabbit pyrogen test
B
Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) reagent
✓ Correct
C
Gram staining technique
D
Gas chromatography
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The LAL test uses an aqueous extract of blood cells (amebocytes) from the horseshoe crab (Limulus polyphemus) to detect minute amounts of bacterial endotoxins (lipopolysaccharides).
Q. 10 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the primary mechanism of microbial killing in dry heat sterilization using a hot air oven?
A
Protein coagulation
B
Oxidative destruction of cellular constituents
✓ Correct
C
Disruption of DNA via alkylation
D
Cell wall lysis via osmotic shock
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Dry heat sterilization destroys microorganisms primarily through cellular oxidation and desiccation, whereas moist heat (autoclave) kills via protein coagulation and denaturation.
Q. 11 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which type of water is official in the pharmacopoeia for the compounding and preparation of injectable parenteral solutions?
A
Purified water
B
Sterile Water for Injection (SWFI)
✓ Correct
C
Potable tap water
D
Bacteriostatic Water for Irrigation
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Water for Injection (WFI) or Sterile Water for Injection (SWFI) is pyrogen-free, sterile purified water obtained by distillation or reverse osmosis meeting strict endotoxin limits (< 0.25 EU/mL).
Q. 12 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Hard (1 Mark)
In rheology, a fluid whose viscosity decreases as shear rate increases without a yield value is called:
A
Dilatant (shear-thickening)
B
Pseudoplastic (shear-thinning)
✓ Correct
C
Newtonian
D
Bingham plastic
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Pseudoplastic flow (shear-thinning) is exhibited by polymeric solutions where viscosity decreases with increasing shear stress, essential for injectable suspensions and ophthalmic drops.
Q. 13 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which polymer is widely utilized as an enteric coating material because it remains insoluble in gastric acid (pH < 5.5) but dissolves in intestinal juice?
A
Cellulose acetate phthalate (CAP)
✓ Correct
B
Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)
C
Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
D
Ethyl cellulose
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cellulose acetate phthalate (CAP) and Eudragit L/S are polycarboxylic polymers with free acid groups that are un-ionized and insoluble at low stomach pH, but ionize and dissolve in the duodenum.
Q. 14 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
The electrical potential existing at the shear plane (slipping plane) of a colloidal particle in suspension is known as:
A
Nernst potential
B
Zeta potential
✓ Correct
C
Streaming potential
D
Donnan potential
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Zeta potential governs the electrostatic repulsion between adjacent, similarly charged particles. In flocculated suspensions, zeta potential is typically around +/- 20 to 30 mV.
Q. 15 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Lyophilization is a pharmaceutical drying process operating on the principle of:
A
Evaporation under atmospheric pressure
B
Sublimation of frozen ice crystals directly into vapor under vacuum
✓ Correct
C
Spray drying with hot circulating air
D
Centrifugal fluidization
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Lyophilization (freeze-drying) dries thermolabile products (proteins, antibiotics) by freezing the solution and sublimating ice directly to water vapor below the triple point of water.
Q. 16 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
According to the USP, what is the maximum permissible percentage weight loss for standard compressed tablets in the friability test?
A
0.1%
B
0.5%
C
1.0%
✓ Correct
D
2.0%
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
According to USP/BP pharmacopoeial standards, the maximum acceptable limit for tablet friability is not more than 1.0% of the initial weight, with no broken or cracked tablets.
Q. 17 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which of the following is an example of an oil-soluble antioxidant frequently incorporated into oily pharmaceutical vehicles?
A
Ascorbic acid
B
Sodium metabisulfite
C
Butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT)
✓ Correct
D
Sodium thiosulfate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BHT (Butylated hydroxytoluene), BHA, and Tocopherols (Vitamin E) are lipid-soluble antioxidants, while ascorbic acid and sodium metabisulfite are water-soluble antioxidants.
Q. 18 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
The phenomenon where an emulsion separates into two distinct phases that cannot be re-homogenized upon shaking is called:
A
Creaming
B
Flocculation
C
Cracking (breaking)
✓ Correct
D
Phase inversion
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cracking or breaking is an irreversible destruction of the protective emulsifying film where globules coalesce into separate bulk phases. Creaming, by contrast, is reversible upon shaking.
Q. 19 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which parenteral route of administration offers 100% systemic bioavailability by definition?
A
Intramuscular (IM)
B
Subcutaneous (SC)
C
Intravenous (IV) bolus
✓ Correct
D
Intradermal (ID)
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
By pharmacologic definition, intravenous (IV) administration places 100% of the active drug dose directly into the systemic circulation, meaning bioavailability F = 1.0 (100%).
Q. 20 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Vesicular carrier systems composed of concentric phospholipid bilayers enclosing an aqueous core are designated as:
A
Micelles
B
Liposomes
✓ Correct
C
Niosomes
D
Microemulsions
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Liposomes are microscopic vesicular drug delivery carriers formed by concentric phospholipid bilayers capable of entrapping hydrophilic drugs in the core and lipophilic drugs in the bilayer.
Q. 21 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which kinetic order describes the elimination of a constant fraction (percentage) of drug from the body per unit of time?
A
Zero-order kinetics
B
First-order kinetics
✓ Correct
C
Second-order kinetics
D
Michaelis-Menten saturated kinetics
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In first-order kinetics, the rate of drug elimination is directly proportional to plasma concentration; hence, a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time, resulting in a constant half-life.
Q. 22 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which of the following drugs exhibits zero-order elimination kinetics at standard therapeutic or slightly elevated concentrations?
A
Penicillin G
B
Phenytoin
✓ Correct
C
Gentamicin
D
Propranolol
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Phenytoin, Ethanol, and Aspirin (high doses) demonstrate capacity-limited (zero-order) elimination kinetics where hepatic enzymes become saturated, and a constant amount is cleared per unit time.
Q. 23 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
The apparent volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug will be extraordinarily large (> 5 L/kg) if the drug:
A
Is heavily bound to plasma albumin
B
Is highly polar and confined to extracellular water
C
Is lipophilic and extensively sequestered in peripheral tissues and adipose
✓ Correct
D
Has poor oral absorption
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Drugs like Digoxin, Chloroquine, and Amiodarone have huge Vd (> 500 L in a 70 kg human) because they bind extensively to tissue proteins and lipid reservoirs, leaving very low free concentration in plasma.
Q. 24 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which specific antidote should be administered immediately for acute paracetamol (acetaminophen) overdose to prevent fulminant hepatic necrosis?
A
Naloxone
B
N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
✓ Correct
C
Flumazenil
D
Deferoxamine
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Paracetamol hepatotoxicity is mediated by the toxic metabolite NAPQI. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) acts as a glutathione precursor and substitute, conjugating and detoxifying NAPQI.
Q. 25 Pharmacy
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics (e.g., penicillins, cephalosporins)?
A
Inhibition of 30S ribosomal subunit translation
B
Inhibition of transpeptidase enzymes and bacterial cell wall synthesis
✓ Correct
C
Inhibition of DNA gyrase / topoisomerase II
D
Disruption of bacterial cytoplasmic membrane integrity
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Beta-lactams bind covalently to Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs / transpeptidases), blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan chains in bacterial cell walls, triggering osmotic autolysis.
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📜Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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📜Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Choose the correct answer for the following Pakistan Studies questions:
Q. 1 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which province of Pakistan is called Bab-ul-Islam?
A
Punjab
B
Sindh
✓ Correct
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Balochistan
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sindh is known as the "Gateway of Islam" because it was the first region conquered by Muslims.
Q. 2 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim during the ____ period.
A
Umayyads
✓ Correct
B
Abbasids
C
Tulun
D
Idrisids
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The conquest occurred during the reign of the Umayyad Caliph Al-Walid I.
Q. 3 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim was the nephew of
A
Sulayman bin Abdul Malik
B
Abdul Malik bin Marwan
C
Walid bin Abdul Malik
D
Hajjaj bin Yousaf
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the nephew and son-in-law of Hajjaj, the governor of Iraq.
Q. 4 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim in ____ A.D.
A
712
✓ Correct
B
713
C
714
D
715
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The decisive campaign against Raja Dahir culminated in the victory of 712 AD.
Q. 5 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was the ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Dehli
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Depalpur
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the last Hindu king of the Brahman dynasty in Sindh.
Q. 6 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was defeated by
A
Yazid bin Mulhib
B
Muhammad bin Qasim
✓ Correct
C
Tariq bin Ziyad
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The young Arab general defeated Dahir at the Battle of Aror.
Q. 7 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Debul and Alor are the names of
A
Places of Ancient Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Old Gardens of Sindh
C
Old Games of Sindh
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Debul was a seaport and Alor (Aror) was the capital of Sindh.
Q. 8 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Chach Nama is the ancient history of
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Rawalpindi
D
Sindh
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This historical work details the Chach Dynasty and the Arab conquest of Sindh.
Q. 9 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Makli Hill is the name of ____ which is situated in province of Sindh.
A
Graveyard
✓ Correct
B
Playground
C
Ancient building
D
Local dance
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Makli is one of the largest necropolises (cemeteries) in the world.
Q. 10 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Who was Chach?
A
Father of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
B
Son of Raja Dahir
C
Son in law of Dahir
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chach of Aror was the founder of the Brahman dynasty and Dahir's father.
Q. 11 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Who was Sisakar?
A
Wazir of Hajjaj bin Yousaf
B
Wazir of Muhammad bin Qasim
C
Wazir of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the Prime Minister of Raja Dahir who later joined the Muslim side.
Q. 12 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mohenjodaro is located in ____
A
Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Baluchistan
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Punjab
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This Indus Valley Civilization site is located in the Larkana District of Sindh.
Q. 13 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Al-Arus a huge balista used by Muhammad bin Qasim during the conquest of ____
A
Lahore
B
Depalpur
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Peshawar
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Al-Arus was a massive catapult used to breach the walls of Debul in Sindh.
Q. 14 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim tortured to death in a prison in Iraq during the caliphate of ____
A
Sulaiman
✓ Correct
B
Walid
C
Yazid
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the death of Walid I and Hajjaj, Caliph Sulaiman bin Abdul Malik imprisoned him.
Q. 15 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In 133 A.H/750 A.D. the Abbasids overthrew the ____
A
Safvids
B
Mughals
C
Umayyads
✓ Correct
D
Meds
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Abbasid Revolution ended the rule of the Umayyad dynasty.
Q. 16 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
The Abbasids Governor came to Sindh in 140 A.H./757 A.D.
A
Hisham
B
Walid
C
Musa
✓ Correct
D
Yasir
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Musa bin Ka'b al-Tamimi was the first Abbasid governor of Sindh.
Q. 17 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Waihind (Modern Hund in District Attock) was the capital of ____
A
Umayyads
B
Abbassids
C
Mughals
D
Hindu Shahis
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hund served as the second capital of the Hindu Shahi kingdom.
Q. 18 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In 367 A.H/777 A.D, Subuktigin, a Turkish slave become the master of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Depalpur
D
Ghazni
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sebuktigin founded the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan.
Q. 19 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Subuktigin died in August 997 A.D and was... succeeded by his brilliant and ambitious son, ____
A
Ahmad
B
Mahmood
✓ Correct
C
Ayaz
D
Arsalan
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni succeeded his father and expanded the empire into India.
Q. 20 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mahmood’s first important battle was fought against ____ near Peshawar in 8 Muharram 392 A.H 25 November 1001 A.D.
A
Jaipal
✓ Correct
B
Sukhpal
C
Anandpal
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud defeated the Shahi King Jaipal at the Battle of Peshawar.
Q. 21 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Abu-al-Fath Daud was the Ismaili ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
✓ Correct
C
Sindh
D
Depalpur
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud of Ghazni conquered Multan from the Ismaili ruler Abul Fath Daud.
Q. 22 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mahmood set out on the expedition to Somnath on 17 October ____
A
1023 A.D
B
1024 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1025 A.D
D
1026 A.D
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The expedition to the famous temple took place between 1024 and 1025.
Q. 23 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mahmood breathed his last sigh on 30 April ____
A
1024 A.D.
B
1026 A.D.
C
1028 A.D.
D
1030 A.D.
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud passed away in Ghazni in the year 1030.
Q. 24 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In ____ A.D the first battle of Traain was fought between Muhammad Ghauri and Rajputs... Muhammad Ghauri defeated in this battle.
A
1189
B
1190
C
1191
✓ Correct
D
1192
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghauri in the first engagement at Tarain.
Q. 25 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In ____ A.D. the second battle of Train was fought and Rajputs defeated in this battle.
A
1190
B
1191
C
1192
✓ Correct
D
1193
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ghauri returned a year later and decisively defeated the Rajput confederacy.
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