📖 Tier 1: Prepare & Study Guide
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ENUMERATOR (BS-16) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
NTS Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
9094 Total
Questions
~13641 mins Read
Time
4 Subject Areas
🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy
✓ 100% Comprehensive Guide
📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide
Candidate Selection Architecture for ENUMERATOR (BS-16)
📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint
The competitive recruitment screening for ENUMERATOR (BS-16) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Statistics, English Language Comprehension, General Knowledge, and Pakistan Affairs. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.
| Examination Subject / Question Type | Target Marks | Weightage | Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark |
|---|---|---|---|
| Statistics | 50 MCQs | 50% | Data collection methodologies, Statistical analysis techniques, Survey design and implementation |
| English Language Comprehension | 20 MCQs | 20% | Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension |
| General Knowledge | 15 MCQs | 15% | World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts |
| Pakistan Affairs | 15 MCQs | 15% | Constitutional history, Pakistan movement, national affairs, economy |
💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios
Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:
Scenario 1: Authentic Practical Scenario 1 for Enumerator
Operational Dilemma: Respondent refuses to provide information due to privacy concerns.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Explain how to handle the situation by assuring confidentiality and providing reassurance. Use appropriate communication techniques to build trust.
Standard: Maintaining respondent confidence and adhering to data protection guidelines.
Scenario 2: Authentic Practical Scenario 2 for Enumerator
Operational Dilemma: Difficulty in reaching a respondent who is frequently unavailable.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Describe strategies for follow-up, such as scheduling multiple visits or using alternative contact methods. Highlight the importance of persistence and adaptability.
Standard: Effective follow-up and communication strategies.
Scenario 3: Authentic Practical Scenario 3 for Enumerator
Operational Dilemma: Encountering language barriers while conducting interviews.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Discuss methods for overcoming language barriers, such as using interpreters or simplifying language. Emphasize the importance of clear and concise communication.
Standard: Handling language barriers and ensuring effective communication.
🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview
Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.
Q1: What are the key steps involved in conducting a successful survey?
Model Response: Key steps include planning, designing the questionnaire, obtaining necessary permissions, conducting the survey, and ensuring data quality.
Q2: How do you ensure the accuracy and reliability of the data collected?
Model Response: Accuracy and reliability can be ensured by following standardized procedures, cross-checking data, and maintaining detailed records.
Q3: What measures do you take to protect respondent confidentiality?
Model Response: Confidentiality is protected by ensuring data is anonymized, securely stored, and only accessible to authorized personnel.
Q4: Can you describe a situation where you had to deal with a difficult respondent and how you handled it?
Model Response: Provide an example of a challenging situation and explain your approach, emphasizing empathy, patience, and problem-solving skills.
📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap
Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:
- Days 1-5: Statistics Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
- Days 6-8: English Language Comprehension Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
- Days 9-11: General Knowledge & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
- Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
- Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.
✅ 5. Examination Day Protocol & Merit Optimization Strategy
Candidates appearing for the ENUMERATOR (BS-16) (BS-16) screening examination should strictly observe official test center protocols: carry the original CNIC, printed Roll Number Slip, and black or blue ballpoint pens for OMR bubble shading. Allocate the first 45 minutes to high-confidence questions in Statistics and English Language Comprehension before attempting multi-step analytical items. Maintain a minimum 80% accuracy rate across attempted items to absorb any negative marking deductions and secure a top-decile merit ranking for the Departmental Selection Committee interview.
Q. 1
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
For a moderately skewed unimodal frequency distribution, what is Karl Pearson's empirical relationship between the Mean, Median, and Mode?
A
Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean
✓ Correct
B
Mean = 3 Mode - 2 Median
C
Median = 3 Mean - 2 Mode
D
Mode = 2 Median - 3 Mean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Karl Pearson observed that for moderately asymmetrical unimodal frequency curves, the distance between the mean and mode is approximately three times the distance between the mean and median: (Mean - Mode) ≈ 3(Mean - Median), which rearranges to Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean.
Q. 2
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which measure of central tendency is most severely distorted and influenced by extreme outlier values in a dataset?
A
Arithmetic Mean
✓ Correct
B
Median
C
Mode
D
Interquartile Range
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The arithmetic mean uses every numerical value in its calculation ($\sum x / n$), making it highly sensitive to extreme high or low outliers. The median and mode are resistant/robust measures of location.
Q. 3
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
When calculating the average rate of speed, velocity, or price-per-unit ratios, which mathematical average is theoretically the most appropriate measure of central tendency?
A
Harmonic Mean
✓ Correct
B
Arithmetic Mean
C
Median
D
Mode
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The harmonic mean ($H = n / \sum (1/x_i)$) is the reciprocal of the arithmetic mean of reciprocals. It is mathematically the correct average for rates, ratios, speeds over equal distances, and prices per unit.
Q. 4
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
For calculating the average annual growth rate of population, financial compound interest, or index numbers, which average is statistically optimal?
A
Geometric Mean
✓ Correct
B
Arithmetic Mean
C
Harmonic Mean
D
Mode
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The geometric mean ($G = (\prod x_i)^{1/n}$) is mathematically designed for averaging percentages, percentage changes, ratios, compounding financial interest, and multi-year demographic growth rates.
Q. 5
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
For any set of positive, distinct real numbers ($x_i > 0$), what is the universal mathematical inequality relationship between the Arithmetic Mean (AM), Geometric Mean (GM), and Harmonic Mean (HM)?
A
AM > GM > HM
✓ Correct
B
HM > GM > AM
C
GM > AM > HM
D
AM = GM > HM
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The classical AM-GM-HM inequality states that for positive, non-identical numbers, the Arithmetic Mean is strictly greater than the Geometric Mean, which in turn is strictly greater than the Harmonic Mean: $AM > GM > HM$. They are equal only if all values are identical.
Q. 6
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The algebraic sum of the deviations of a set of observations from their arithmetic mean ($\sum (x_i - \bar{x})$) is ALWAYS equal to:
A
Zero (0)
✓ Correct
B
One (1)
C
The variance
D
The standard error
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A fundamental mathematical property of the arithmetic mean is that the sum of positive and negative deviations about the mean cancels out exactly: $\sum (x_i - \bar{x}) = \sum x_i - n\bar{x} = n\bar{x} - n\bar{x} = 0$.
Q. 7
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The sum of squared deviations of a set of values ($\sum (x_i - A)^2$) is minimized when $A$ is chosen as the:
A
Arithmetic Mean
✓ Correct
B
Median
C
Mode
D
Geometric Mean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
By differential calculus, $\sum (x_i - A)^2$ attains its global absolute minimum when $A = \bar{x}$ (the arithmetic mean). Conversely, the sum of absolute deviations $\sum |x_i - A|$ is minimized when $A$ is the median.
Q. 8
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In an ogive (cumulative frequency curve), the value on the horizontal axis corresponding to the intersection point of the 'less than' ogive and 'more than' ogive gives the:
A
Median
✓ Correct
B
Arithmetic Mean
C
Mode
D
Variance
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The intersection of the 'less than' cumulative frequency curve ($N/2$ from below) and the 'more than' cumulative frequency curve ($N/2$ from above) occurs precisely at the 50th percentile, which defines the Median.
Q. 9
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What relative measure of dispersion expresses the standard deviation as a percentage of the arithmetic mean to compare variability between datasets with different units of measurement?
A
Coefficient of Variation (CV)
✓ Correct
B
Variance
C
Standard Error
D
Range
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Coefficient of Variation ($CV = (s / \bar{x}) \times 100\%$) is a dimensionless relative measure of dispersion introduced by Karl Pearson, allowing direct comparison of risk or variability across datasets with different units or disparate means.
Q. 10
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
If every single observation in a dataset is multiplied by a constant $c = 5$, how does the standard deviation of the transformed dataset change?
A
It is multiplied by 5
✓ Correct
B
It is multiplied by 25
C
It remains unchanged
D
It increases by 5 units
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Multiplying data values by a constant $c$ scales the standard deviation by $|c|$ (so $s_{new} = 5 \times s_{old}$), while the variance scales by $c^2$ (so $s^2_{new} = 25 \times s^2_{old}$). Adding a constant changes neither standard deviation nor variance.
Q. 11
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
If every observation in a dataset is increased by adding a constant $k = 10$, what happens to the standard deviation and the variance?
A
Both standard deviation and variance remain completely unchanged
✓ Correct
B
Standard deviation increases by 10
C
Variance increases by 100
D
Standard deviation is multiplied by 10
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Measures of dispersion (range, IQR, mean deviation, variance, standard deviation) are independent of change of origin. Adding or subtracting a constant shifts all points equally without altering their spread relative to each other.
Q. 12
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Interquartile Range (IQR) is mathematically defined as the difference between which two percentiles?
A
Third Quartile ($Q_3$ / 75th percentile) and First Quartile ($Q_1$ / 25th percentile)
✓ Correct
B
90th percentile and 10th percentile
C
Maximum and Minimum value
D
Mean and Median
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Interquartile Range ($IQR = Q_3 - Q_1$) spans the central 50% of ordered observations, serving as an outlier-resistant measure of statistical spread.
Q. 13
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In John Tukey's standard Box-and-Whisker plot, an observation is classified as an 'outlier' if it lies beyond:
A
$Q_1 - 1.5 \times IQR$ or $Q_3 + 1.5 \times IQR$
✓ Correct
B
$Mean \pm 1.0 \times SD$
C
$Q_1 - 0.5 \times IQR$ or $Q_3 + 0.5 \times IQR$
D
Beyond the 95th percentile only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Tukey established the 'inner fences' of a boxplot at $[Q_1 - 1.5 \cdot IQR, Q_3 + 1.5 \cdot IQR]$. Data points falling outside these fences are plotted individually as suspected outliers.
Q. 14
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the value of the first central moment ($\mu_1$) about the arithmetic mean for any probability distribution?
A
Exactly 0
✓ Correct
B
Exactly 1
C
The variance
D
The standard deviation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The $r$-th central moment is defined as $\mu_r = E[(X - \mu)^r]$. For $r = 1$, $\mu_1 = E[X - \mu] = E[X] - \mu = \mu - \mu = 0$ for every valid distribution.
Q. 15
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The second central moment about the mean ($\mu_2 = E[(X - \mu)^2]$) represents which fundamental statistical parameter?
A
Variance
✓ Correct
B
Standard error
C
Skewness
D
Kurtosis
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
By definition, the second central moment $\mu_2$ is the variance ($\sigma^2$), measuring dispersion of observations around the population mean.
Q. 16
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Karl Pearson's moment coefficient of skewness ($\beta_1$) is calculated using the second and third central moments as:
A
$\beta_1 = \mu_3^2 / \mu_2^3$
✓ Correct
B
$\beta_1 = \mu_3 / \mu_2$
C
$\beta_1 = \mu_4 / \mu_2^2$
D
$\beta_1 = \mu_2^3 / \mu_3^2$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Pearson defined $\beta_1 = \mu_3^2 / \mu_2^3$. The standardized skewness coefficient is $\gamma_1 = \sqrt{\beta_1} = \mu_3 / \sigma^3$. For a symmetric distribution, $\mu_3 = 0$ and $\beta_1 = 0$.
Q. 17
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A continuous frequency curve has a long tail stretching to the right side (positive values). What is the relative order of the three measures of central location?
A
Mean > Median > Mode
✓ Correct
B
Mode > Median > Mean
C
Median > Mean > Mode
D
Mean = Median = Mode
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In a positively (right) skewed distribution, extreme high values pull the mean farthest into the right tail, resulting in: $\text{Mean} > \text{Median} > \text{Mode}$. In a negatively (left) skewed distribution: $\text{Mode} > \text{Median} > \text{Mean}$.
Q. 18
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Karl Pearson's coefficient of kurtosis is defined as $\beta_2 = \mu_4 / \mu_2^2$. What is the value of $\beta_2$ for a perfectly normal (mesokurtic) distribution?
A
3.0 (or excess kurtosis $\gamma_2 = \beta_2 - 3 = 0$)
✓ Correct
B
0.0
C
1.0
D
0.5
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
For any Gaussian (normal) distribution, the ratio of the fourth central moment to the square of the second central moment is exactly $\beta_2 = 3$. Excess kurtosis is defined as $\gamma_2 = \beta_2 - 3 = 0$.
Q. 19
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A distribution that is more peaked around its center than a normal distribution and has fatter, heavier tails (with $\beta_2 > 3$) is classified as:
A
Leptokurtic
✓ Correct
B
Platykurtic
C
Mesokurtic
D
Symmetrical
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distributions with $\beta_2 > 3$ (excess kurtosis $> 0$) are termed 'leptokurtic' (sharp peak, heavy tails). Distributions with $\beta_2 < 3$ are 'platykurtic' (flatter peak, lighter tails), and $\beta_2 = 3$ is 'mesokurtic'.
Q. 20
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Two events $A$ and $B$ are said to be 'mutually exclusive' (disjoint) if and only if:
A
They cannot occur simultaneously ($P(A \cap B) = 0$)
✓ Correct
B
$P(A \cap B) = P(A) \times P(B)$
C
$P(A) + P(B) = 1$
D
$P(A|B) = P(A)$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mutually exclusive events have an empty intersection ($A \cap B = \emptyset$). Hence, the probability that both occur simultaneously is zero: $P(A \cap B) = 0$.
Q. 21
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Two events $A$ and $B$ are statistically 'independent' if and only if:
A
$P(A \cap B) = P(A) \times P(B)$
✓ Correct
B
$P(A \cap B) = 0$
C
$P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B)$
D
$P(A) = P(B)$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
By definition, events $A$ and $B$ are statistically independent when the occurrence of one does not affect the probability of the other, meaning $P(A|B) = P(A)$, which yields the multiplicative rule: $P(A \cap B) = P(A) \times P(B)$.
Q. 22
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
If two fair six-sided dice are rolled simultaneously, what is the probability of obtaining a sum equal to 7?
A
6 / 36 (1 / 6)
✓ Correct
B
1 / 36
C
7 / 36
D
1 / 12
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
There are $6 \times 6 = 36$ equally likely outcomes. The outcomes summing to 7 are: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1)—totaling 6 favorable outcomes. Thus, $P(\text{Sum} = 7) = 6/36 = 1/6$.
Q. 23
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Bayes' Theorem provides a mathematical framework for calculating:
A
Posterior probability given prior probabilities and conditional likelihoods
✓ Correct
B
The arithmetic mean of a sample
C
The exact range of a continuous variable
D
The degrees of freedom in an ANOVA table
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Bayes' Theorem ($P(A_i|B) = \frac{P(B|A_i)P(A_i)}{\sum P(B|A_j)P(A_j)}$) updates the prior probability of an event $A_i$ upon observing new empirical evidence $B$ to calculate the revised posterior probability.
Q. 24
Statistics
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
For a discrete random variable $X$ with probability mass function $P(X = x)$, what two mathematical conditions must be satisfied?
A
$P(X = x) \ge 0$ for all $x$, and $\sum P(X = x) = 1$
✓ Correct
B
$P(X = x) \le 0$, and $\sum P(X = x) = 0$
C
$P(X = x) > 1$, and $\sum P(X = x) = 100$
D
$\sum P(X = x) = \infty$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The axioms of probability mandate that every individual probability mass must be non-negative ($0 \le P(X=x) \le 1$), and the sum of probabilities across the entire sample space must equal exactly 1.
Q. 25
Statistics
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
For a continuous random variable $X$ with probability density function $f(x)$, what is the probability that $X$ takes on any single exact point value $c$ ($P(X = c)$)?
A
Exactly 0
✓ Correct
B
Exactly 1
C
$f(c)$
D
$0.5$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
For continuous random variables, probabilities correspond to areas under the density curve: $P(a \le X \le b) = \int_a^b f(x) dx$. Because the area over a single dimensionless point is zero, $P(X = c) = \int_c^c f(x) dx = 0$.
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25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Choose the correct answer for the following Pakistan Studies questions:
Q. 1
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which province of Pakistan is called Bab-ul-Islam?
A
Punjab
B
Sindh
✓ Correct
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Balochistan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sindh is known as the "Gateway of Islam" because it was the first region conquered by Muslims.
Q. 2
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim during the ____ period.
A
Umayyads
✓ Correct
B
Abbasids
C
Tulun
D
Idrisids
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The conquest occurred during the reign of the Umayyad Caliph Al-Walid I.
Q. 3
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim was the nephew of
A
Sulayman bin Abdul Malik
B
Abdul Malik bin Marwan
C
Walid bin Abdul Malik
D
Hajjaj bin Yousaf
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the nephew and son-in-law of Hajjaj, the governor of Iraq.
Q. 4
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim in ____ A.D.
A
712
✓ Correct
B
713
C
714
D
715
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The decisive campaign against Raja Dahir culminated in the victory of 712 AD.
Q. 5
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was the ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Dehli
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the last Hindu king of the Brahman dynasty in Sindh.
Q. 6
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was defeated by
A
Yazid bin Mulhib
B
Muhammad bin Qasim
✓ Correct
C
Tariq bin Ziyad
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The young Arab general defeated Dahir at the Battle of Aror.
Q. 7
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Debul and Alor are the names of
A
Places of Ancient Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Old Gardens of Sindh
C
Old Games of Sindh
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Debul was a seaport and Alor (Aror) was the capital of Sindh.
Q. 8
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Chach Nama is the ancient history of
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Rawalpindi
D
Sindh
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This historical work details the Chach Dynasty and the Arab conquest of Sindh.
Q. 9
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Makli Hill is the name of ____ which is situated in province of Sindh.
A
Graveyard
✓ Correct
B
Playground
C
Ancient building
D
Local dance
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Makli is one of the largest necropolises (cemeteries) in the world.
Q. 10
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Chach?
A
Father of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
B
Son of Raja Dahir
C
Son in law of Dahir
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chach of Aror was the founder of the Brahman dynasty and Dahir's father.
Q. 11
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Sisakar?
A
Wazir of Hajjaj bin Yousaf
B
Wazir of Muhammad bin Qasim
C
Wazir of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the Prime Minister of Raja Dahir who later joined the Muslim side.
Q. 12
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mohenjodaro is located in ____
A
Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Baluchistan
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Punjab
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This Indus Valley Civilization site is located in the Larkana District of Sindh.
Q. 13
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Al-Arus a huge balista used by Muhammad bin Qasim during the conquest of ____
A
Lahore
B
Depalpur
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Peshawar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Al-Arus was a massive catapult used to breach the walls of Debul in Sindh.
Q. 14
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim tortured to death in a prison in Iraq during the caliphate of ____
A
Sulaiman
✓ Correct
B
Walid
C
Yazid
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the death of Walid I and Hajjaj, Caliph Sulaiman bin Abdul Malik imprisoned him.
Q. 15
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 133 A.H/750 A.D. the Abbasids overthrew the ____
A
Safvids
B
Mughals
C
Umayyads
✓ Correct
D
Meds
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Abbasid Revolution ended the rule of the Umayyad dynasty.
Q. 16
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The Abbasids Governor came to Sindh in 140 A.H./757 A.D.
A
Hisham
B
Walid
C
Musa
✓ Correct
D
Yasir
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Musa bin Ka'b al-Tamimi was the first Abbasid governor of Sindh.
Q. 17
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Waihind (Modern Hund in District Attock) was the capital of ____
A
Umayyads
B
Abbassids
C
Mughals
D
Hindu Shahis
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hund served as the second capital of the Hindu Shahi kingdom.
Q. 18
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 367 A.H/777 A.D, Subuktigin, a Turkish slave become the master of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Depalpur
D
Ghazni
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sebuktigin founded the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan.
Q. 19
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Subuktigin died in August 997 A.D and was... succeeded by his brilliant and ambitious son, ____
A
Ahmad
B
Mahmood
✓ Correct
C
Ayaz
D
Arsalan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni succeeded his father and expanded the empire into India.
Q. 20
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood’s first important battle was fought against ____ near Peshawar in 8 Muharram 392 A.H 25 November 1001 A.D.
A
Jaipal
✓ Correct
B
Sukhpal
C
Anandpal
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud defeated the Shahi King Jaipal at the Battle of Peshawar.
Q. 21
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abu-al-Fath Daud was the Ismaili ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
✓ Correct
C
Sindh
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud of Ghazni conquered Multan from the Ismaili ruler Abul Fath Daud.
Q. 22
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood set out on the expedition to Somnath on 17 October ____
A
1023 A.D
B
1024 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1025 A.D
D
1026 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The expedition to the famous temple took place between 1024 and 1025.
Q. 23
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood breathed his last sigh on 30 April ____
A
1024 A.D.
B
1026 A.D.
C
1028 A.D.
D
1030 A.D.
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud passed away in Ghazni in the year 1030.
Q. 24
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D the first battle of Traain was fought between Muhammad Ghauri and Rajputs... Muhammad Ghauri defeated in this battle.
A
1189
B
1190
C
1191
✓ Correct
D
1192
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghauri in the first engagement at Tarain.
Q. 25
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D. the second battle of Train was fought and Rajputs defeated in this battle.
A
1190
B
1191
C
1192
✓ Correct
D
1193
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ghauri returned a year later and decisively defeated the Rajput confederacy.
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