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DIRECTOR SUPPLY CHAIN (BS-18) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
NTS Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
6102 Total
Questions
~9153 mins Read
Time
4 Subject Areas
🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy
✓ 100% Comprehensive Guide
📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide
Candidate Selection Architecture for DIRECTOR SUPPLY CHAIN (BS-18)
📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint
The competitive recruitment screening for DIRECTOR SUPPLY CHAIN (BS-18) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Defence Procurement & Supply Chain, Office Governance, English Language Comprehension, and General Knowledge. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.
| Examination Subject / Question Type | Target Marks | Weightage | Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark |
|---|---|---|---|
| Defence Procurement & Supply Chain | 50 MCQs | 50% | PPRA Rules & Public Tendering, Contract Drafting & Commercial Terms, Inventory Control & Warehousing, Supplier Performance Evaluation |
| Office Governance | 20 MCQs | 20% | Secretariat Instructions, Official Correspondence & Letter Drafting, Filing Systems & Record Disposal, Civil Servants Rules |
| English Language Comprehension | 15 MCQs | 15% | Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension |
| General Knowledge | 15 MCQs | 15% | World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts |
💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios
Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:
Scenario 1: Authentic Practical Scenario 1 for Director Supply Chain
Operational Dilemma: A critical shortage of pediatric medications is reported. What steps would you take to address this issue?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Identify the shortage, contact suppliers, expedite delivery, and update inventory records.
Standard: Proper inventory management and supplier relations.
Scenario 2: Authentic Practical Scenario 2 for Director Supply Chain
Operational Dilemma: A new regulatory requirement for medical waste disposal has been introduced. How would you ensure compliance?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Review the new regulation, update policies, train staff, and monitor compliance.
Standard: Regulatory compliance and staff training.
Scenario 3: Authentic Practical Scenario 3 for Director Supply Chain
Operational Dilemma: A vendor is found to be supplying substandard medical equipment. What actions would you take?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Conduct an investigation, report findings to management, and take corrective action.
Standard: Quality control and vendor management.
🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview
Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.
Q1: Realistic interview / viva question 1 for Director Supply Chain?
Model Response: Explain your approach to managing inventory levels in a healthcare setting.
Q2: Realistic interview / viva question 2 for Director Supply Chain?
Model Response: Describe how you would handle a situation where a critical medical supply is running low.
Q3: Realistic interview / viva question 3 for Director Supply Chain?
Model Response: Discuss the importance of regulatory compliance in supply chain management.
Q4: Realistic interview / viva question 4 for Director Supply Chain?
Model Response: How do you ensure the quality of medical supplies and equipment in your organization?
📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap
Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:
- Days 1-5: Defence Procurement & Supply Chain Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
- Days 6-8: Office Governance Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
- Days 9-11: English Language Comprehension & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
- Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
- Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.
✅ 5. Examination Day Protocol & Merit Optimization Strategy
Candidates appearing for the DIRECTOR SUPPLY CHAIN (BS-18) (BS-18) screening examination should strictly observe official test center protocols: carry the original CNIC, printed Roll Number Slip, and black or blue ballpoint pens for OMR bubble shading. Allocate the first 45 minutes to high-confidence questions in Defence Procurement & Supply Chain and Office Governance before attempting multi-step analytical items. Maintain a minimum 80% accuracy rate across attempted items to absorb any negative marking deductions and secure a top-decile merit ranking for the Departmental Selection Committee interview.
Q. 1
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Public Procurement Regulatory Authority (PPRA) Rules, what is the default and principal method of procurement for public sector and defence organizations?
A
Open Competitive Bidding (Single Stage One Envelope or Single Stage Two Envelope)
✓ Correct
B
Direct Contracting / Single Sourcing without tender
C
Negotiated tendering without advertisement
D
Petty cash purchasing from local retail shops
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 20 states that open competitive bidding shall be the principal method of procurement to ensure transparency, fairness, and equal opportunity.
Q. 2
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the 'Single Stage - Two Envelope' bidding procedure commonly mandated for technical and defence equipment procurements under PPRA Rule 36(b)?
A
Bidders submit Technical and Financial proposals in separate sealed envelopes; technical bids are evaluated first, and financial bids of only technically responsive bidders are opened publicly
✓ Correct
B
Bidders submit two identical price bids in one envelope
C
The procuring agency opens financial bids first and discards the technical specifications
D
Bidders submit bids in open, unsealed transparent plastic folders
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Single Stage Two Envelope ensures that price evaluation is completely shielded from bias and performed only on proposals that meet all mandatory technical specifications.
Q. 3
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under PPRA Rules, what is the minimum mandatory response time for national competitive bidding from the date of tender publication in newspapers / website?
A
At least 15 calendar days for national competitive bidding (30 days for international competitive bidding)
✓ Correct
B
24 hours from publication
C
7 calendar days
D
90 calendar days
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 13 mandates a minimum of 15 days for national competitive bidding and 30 days for international competitive bidding to allow bidders sufficient time to prepare comprehensive bids.
Q. 4
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What constitutes 'Bid Security / Earnest Money' submitted with a procurement tender?
A
A bank guarantee or call deposit (typically 1% to 5% of estimated tender value) submitted by the bidder to ensure commitment to the submitted bid and prevent frivolous bidding
✓ Correct
B
A cash tip handed directly to the procurement officer
C
A discount voucher offered for future purchases
D
The full advance payment of the contract value
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Bid security guarantees that the winning bidder will not withdraw their bid during validity or refuse to sign the contract and furnish performance security upon award.
Q. 5
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is 'Performance Security / Performance Bond' required from the successful contractor upon award of contract?
A
A bank guarantee (typically 5% to 10% of contract value) held by the procuring agency to guarantee satisfactory execution and warranty compliance of the contract
✓ Correct
B
A certificate proving the contractor's employees are physically fit
C
A loan granted by the procuring agency to the contractor
D
A receipt confirming delivery of office stationery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Performance security protects the procuring agency against contractor default, abandonment, or failure to fulfill contractual delivery milestones and warranty obligations.
Q. 6
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under PPRA Rule 33, what are the conditions under which a procuring agency may reject all bids or proposals prior to acceptance?
A
The procuring agency may reject all bids at any time prior to acceptance; grounds for rejection must be communicated to bidders upon request, but the agency is not required to justify those grounds
✓ Correct
B
The agency cannot reject bids once opened under any circumstances
C
The agency can reject bids only if ordered by a civil court
D
The agency can reject bids only if the lowest price exceeds the budget by 1000%
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 33 allows rejection of all bids prior to contract award, provided the rationale is documented and communicated to participating bidders upon formal request.
Q. 7
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is 'Direct Contracting' (Single Sourcing) under PPRA Rule 42(c) and when is it legally permissible for defence procurements?
A
Procurement without competitive bidding when goods are proprietary/OEM items, standardized parts from existing suppliers, or for reasons of extreme urgency/national security
✓ Correct
B
Any procurement valued under 100 million rupees
C
Purchasing commercial civilian vehicles for staff personal use
D
Procurement conducted exclusively through foreign online shopping websites
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Direct contracting is strictly restricted to cases of proprietary OEM patents, standardization with existing equipment, artistic/exclusive items, or urgent national security emergencies.
Q. 8
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What does the 'Blacklisting of Suppliers / Contractors' entail under PPRA Rule 19?
A
A formal administrative barring of a supplier from participating in public procurement for a specified period due to fraud, corruption, chronic failure to perform, or bid rigging
✓ Correct
B
Painting the supplier's delivery vehicles black
C
Deducting 10% from all future invoice payments
D
Canceling the supplier's corporate website domain
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Blacklisting is a punitive administrative sanction imposed following due process (show-cause notice and personal hearing) against contractors engaged in corrupt practices or willful contractual default.
Q. 9
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is the mandatory 'Bid Evaluation Report' (BER) requirement under PPRA Rule 35 before awarding a public contract?
A
The procuring agency must announce the results of bid evaluation in the form of a report giving justification for acceptance or rejection of bids at least 10 days prior to award
✓ Correct
B
The evaluation report is kept top secret and shredded immediately after opening
C
The report is published only after the final payment has been cleared
D
The report is sent exclusively to the losing bidders' bank managers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 35 mandates a 10-day standstill period following public posting of the Bid Evaluation Report on PPRA/agency websites before signing the contract, allowing grievance redressal.
Q. 10
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is 'Two-Stage Bidding' under PPRA Rule 36(c) used for complex defence technological systems?
A
First stage invites unpriced technical proposals for discussion and specification refinement; second stage invites revised technical and priced bids based on finalized common specifications
✓ Correct
B
A tender where bidders are invited to submit two separate bids for two different companies
C
A process where bidding occurs on two consecutive calendar days
D
A system where the winning bidder is selected by a coin toss
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Two-Stage Bidding is used for complex, large-scale turnkey or customized defence projects where the procuring agency needs industry dialogue to develop exact technical specifications.
Q. 11
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] Under Public Procurement Regulatory Authority (PPRA) Rules, what is the default and principal method of procurement for public sector and defence organizations?
A
Open Competitive Bidding (Single Stage One Envelope or Single Stage Two Envelope)
✓ Correct
B
Direct Contracting / Single Sourcing without tender
C
Negotiated tendering without advertisement
D
Petty cash purchasing from local retail shops
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 20 states that open competitive bidding shall be the principal method of procurement to ensure transparency, fairness, and equal opportunity.
Q. 12
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] What is the 'Single Stage - Two Envelope' bidding procedure commonly mandated for technical and defence equipment procurements under PPRA Rule 36(b)?
A
Bidders submit Technical and Financial proposals in separate sealed envelopes; technical bids are evaluated first, and financial bids of only technically responsive bidders are opened publicly
✓ Correct
B
Bidders submit two identical price bids in one envelope
C
The procuring agency opens financial bids first and discards the technical specifications
D
Bidders submit bids in open, unsealed transparent plastic folders
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Single Stage Two Envelope ensures that price evaluation is completely shielded from bias and performed only on proposals that meet all mandatory technical specifications.
Q. 13
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] Under PPRA Rules, what is the minimum mandatory response time for national competitive bidding from the date of tender publication in newspapers / website?
A
At least 15 calendar days for national competitive bidding (30 days for international competitive bidding)
✓ Correct
B
24 hours from publication
C
7 calendar days
D
90 calendar days
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 13 mandates a minimum of 15 days for national competitive bidding and 30 days for international competitive bidding to allow bidders sufficient time to prepare comprehensive bids.
Q. 14
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] What constitutes 'Bid Security / Earnest Money' submitted with a procurement tender?
A
A bank guarantee or call deposit (typically 1% to 5% of estimated tender value) submitted by the bidder to ensure commitment to the submitted bid and prevent frivolous bidding
✓ Correct
B
A cash tip handed directly to the procurement officer
C
A discount voucher offered for future purchases
D
The full advance payment of the contract value
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Bid security guarantees that the winning bidder will not withdraw their bid during validity or refuse to sign the contract and furnish performance security upon award.
Q. 15
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] What is 'Performance Security / Performance Bond' required from the successful contractor upon award of contract?
A
A bank guarantee (typically 5% to 10% of contract value) held by the procuring agency to guarantee satisfactory execution and warranty compliance of the contract
✓ Correct
B
A certificate proving the contractor's employees are physically fit
C
A loan granted by the procuring agency to the contractor
D
A receipt confirming delivery of office stationery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Performance security protects the procuring agency against contractor default, abandonment, or failure to fulfill contractual delivery milestones and warranty obligations.
Q. 16
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] Under PPRA Rule 33, what are the conditions under which a procuring agency may reject all bids or proposals prior to acceptance?
A
The procuring agency may reject all bids at any time prior to acceptance; grounds for rejection must be communicated to bidders upon request, but the agency is not required to justify those grounds
✓ Correct
B
The agency cannot reject bids once opened under any circumstances
C
The agency can reject bids only if ordered by a civil court
D
The agency can reject bids only if the lowest price exceeds the budget by 1000%
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 33 allows rejection of all bids prior to contract award, provided the rationale is documented and communicated to participating bidders upon formal request.
Q. 17
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] What is 'Direct Contracting' (Single Sourcing) under PPRA Rule 42(c) and when is it legally permissible for defence procurements?
A
Procurement without competitive bidding when goods are proprietary/OEM items, standardized parts from existing suppliers, or for reasons of extreme urgency/national security
✓ Correct
B
Any procurement valued under 100 million rupees
C
Purchasing commercial civilian vehicles for staff personal use
D
Procurement conducted exclusively through foreign online shopping websites
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Direct contracting is strictly restricted to cases of proprietary OEM patents, standardization with existing equipment, artistic/exclusive items, or urgent national security emergencies.
Q. 18
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] What does the 'Blacklisting of Suppliers / Contractors' entail under PPRA Rule 19?
A
A formal administrative barring of a supplier from participating in public procurement for a specified period due to fraud, corruption, chronic failure to perform, or bid rigging
✓ Correct
B
Painting the supplier's delivery vehicles black
C
Deducting 10% from all future invoice payments
D
Canceling the supplier's corporate website domain
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Blacklisting is a punitive administrative sanction imposed following due process (show-cause notice and personal hearing) against contractors engaged in corrupt practices or willful contractual default.
Q. 19
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] What is the mandatory 'Bid Evaluation Report' (BER) requirement under PPRA Rule 35 before awarding a public contract?
A
The procuring agency must announce the results of bid evaluation in the form of a report giving justification for acceptance or rejection of bids at least 10 days prior to award
✓ Correct
B
The evaluation report is kept top secret and shredded immediately after opening
C
The report is published only after the final payment has been cleared
D
The report is sent exclusively to the losing bidders' bank managers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 35 mandates a 10-day standstill period following public posting of the Bid Evaluation Report on PPRA/agency websites before signing the contract, allowing grievance redressal.
Q. 20
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 2] What is 'Two-Stage Bidding' under PPRA Rule 36(c) used for complex defence technological systems?
A
First stage invites unpriced technical proposals for discussion and specification refinement; second stage invites revised technical and priced bids based on finalized common specifications
✓ Correct
B
A tender where bidders are invited to submit two separate bids for two different companies
C
A process where bidding occurs on two consecutive calendar days
D
A system where the winning bidder is selected by a coin toss
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Two-Stage Bidding is used for complex, large-scale turnkey or customized defence projects where the procuring agency needs industry dialogue to develop exact technical specifications.
Q. 21
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 3] Under Public Procurement Regulatory Authority (PPRA) Rules, what is the default and principal method of procurement for public sector and defence organizations?
A
Open Competitive Bidding (Single Stage One Envelope or Single Stage Two Envelope)
✓ Correct
B
Direct Contracting / Single Sourcing without tender
C
Negotiated tendering without advertisement
D
Petty cash purchasing from local retail shops
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 20 states that open competitive bidding shall be the principal method of procurement to ensure transparency, fairness, and equal opportunity.
Q. 22
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 3] What is the 'Single Stage - Two Envelope' bidding procedure commonly mandated for technical and defence equipment procurements under PPRA Rule 36(b)?
A
Bidders submit Technical and Financial proposals in separate sealed envelopes; technical bids are evaluated first, and financial bids of only technically responsive bidders are opened publicly
✓ Correct
B
Bidders submit two identical price bids in one envelope
C
The procuring agency opens financial bids first and discards the technical specifications
D
Bidders submit bids in open, unsealed transparent plastic folders
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Single Stage Two Envelope ensures that price evaluation is completely shielded from bias and performed only on proposals that meet all mandatory technical specifications.
Q. 23
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 3] Under PPRA Rules, what is the minimum mandatory response time for national competitive bidding from the date of tender publication in newspapers / website?
A
At least 15 calendar days for national competitive bidding (30 days for international competitive bidding)
✓ Correct
B
24 hours from publication
C
7 calendar days
D
90 calendar days
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
PPRA Rule 13 mandates a minimum of 15 days for national competitive bidding and 30 days for international competitive bidding to allow bidders sufficient time to prepare comprehensive bids.
Q. 24
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 3] What constitutes 'Bid Security / Earnest Money' submitted with a procurement tender?
A
A bank guarantee or call deposit (typically 1% to 5% of estimated tender value) submitted by the bidder to ensure commitment to the submitted bid and prevent frivolous bidding
✓ Correct
B
A cash tip handed directly to the procurement officer
C
A discount voucher offered for future purchases
D
The full advance payment of the contract value
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Bid security guarantees that the winning bidder will not withdraw their bid during validity or refuse to sign the contract and furnish performance security upon award.
Q. 25
Defence Procurement & Supply Chain
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Defence PPRA Regulations Track 3] What is 'Performance Security / Performance Bond' required from the successful contractor upon award of contract?
A
A bank guarantee (typically 5% to 10% of contract value) held by the procuring agency to guarantee satisfactory execution and warranty compliance of the contract
✓ Correct
B
A certificate proving the contractor's employees are physically fit
C
A loan granted by the procuring agency to the contractor
D
A receipt confirming delivery of office stationery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Performance security protects the procuring agency against contractor default, abandonment, or failure to fulfill contractual delivery milestones and warranty obligations.
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All 300 Solved Questions in Defence Procurement & Supply Chain Loaded!
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Q. 1
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Rules of Business 1973 are framed under which Article of the Constitution of the Islamic Republic of Pakistan?
A
Article 90 and Article 99
✓ Correct
B
Article 48 and Article 58
C
Article 175 and Article 212
D
Article 240 and Article 242
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Articles 90 and 99(3) of the Constitution of Pakistan, the Federal Government makes rules for the allocation and transaction of its business (the Rules of Business, 1973).
Q. 2
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under the Rules of Business 1973, what is a 'Division' defined as?
A
A self-contained administrative unit responsible for the conduct of business of the Federal Government in a distinct specified sphere and declared as such by Federal Government
✓ Correct
B
A military infantry brigade
C
A revenue divisional commissioner's regional territory
D
A commercial branch of a state bank
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 2(vii) of the Rules of Business 1973 defines 'Division' as a self-contained administrative unit responsible for the conduct of business of the Federal Government in a distinct specified sphere.
Q. 3
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 4 of the Rules of Business 1973, who is the official administrative head of a Division and assists the Federal Minister in the formulation and execution of policy?
A
The Secretary to the Federal Government (in-charge of the Division)
✓ Correct
B
The Section Officer
C
The Director General of the Attached Department
D
The Cabinet Secretary alone
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 4(1) provides: In each Division there shall be a Secretary who shall be the official head of the Division and shall assist the Minister in charge in the formulation of policy and shall be responsible for its proper execution.
Q. 4
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 4(5) of the Rules of Business 1973, who is designated as the 'Principal Accounting Officer' (PAO) of the Ministry / Division?
A
The Secretary of the Division
✓ Correct
B
The Federal Minister
C
The Accountant General Pakistan Revenues (AGPR)
D
The Chief Finance and Accounts Officer (CFAO)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 4(5) dictates that the Secretary shall be the Principal Accounting Officer (PAO) of the Division, its Attached Departments, and Subordinate Offices, personally accountable for budgetary propriety to the Public Accounts Committee.
Q. 5
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In the Federal Secretariat of Pakistan, what is an 'Attached Department' under the Rules of Business 1973?
A
A department with the status of an attached department under Schedule III, providing executive operational machinery to implement policy decisions of a Division
✓ Correct
B
An additional room attached to the Minister's office
C
A municipal corporation running local parks
D
A foreign diplomatic embassy in Islamabad
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Attached Departments (listed in Schedule III to the Rules of Business) are specialized executive field organizations headed by Directors General/Inspectors General that execute policies formulated by the Secretariat Division.
Q. 6
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which Schedule to the Rules of Business 1973 specifies the 'Distribution of Business among the Divisions'?
A
Schedule II
✓ Correct
B
Schedule I
C
Schedule IV
D
Schedule VII
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Schedule II of the Rules of Business 1973 details the exact allocation and distribution of statutory functions and executive subjects among all the Divisions of the Federal Government.
Q. 7
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which Schedule to the Rules of Business 1973 lists the 'List of Attached Departments' affiliated with each Division?
A
Schedule III
✓ Correct
B
Schedule I
C
Schedule V
D
Schedule VI
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Schedule III explicitly enumerates all statutory Attached Departments of the Federal Government mapped to their parent administrative Divisions.
Q. 8
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 8 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be mandatorily consulted on any proposal involving financial expenditure, taxes, foreign aid, or terms and conditions affecting salary/pension?
A
Finance Division
✓ Correct
B
Cabinet Division
C
Establishment Division
D
Planning, Development & Special Initiatives Division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 8 mandates that no Division shall, without prior consultation with the Finance Division, authorize any proposal that directly or indirectly affects the finances of the Federation or involves public expenditure.
Q. 9
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 9 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be mandatorily consulted on legal advice, interpretation of any constitutional provision or law, and drafting of all official legislation/ordinances?
A
Law and Justice Division
✓ Correct
B
Interior Division
C
Cabinet Division
D
Establishment Division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 9 requires all Divisions to consult the Law and Justice Division on all legal questions, interpretation of statutes, drafting of bills, statutory rules and orders (SROs), and international treaties.
Q. 10
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 10 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be mandatorily consulted on general service conditions, recruitment rules, framing of service cadres, and civil service disciplinary rules?
A
Establishment Division
✓ Correct
B
Finance Division
C
Planning Commission
D
Parliamentary Affairs Division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 10 stipulates that no Division shall issue any orders affecting terms and conditions of civil service, framing of recruitment rules, or organizational restructuring without prior consultation with the Establishment Division.
Q. 11
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 11 of the Rules of Business 1973, which Division must be consulted on all foreign relations matters, treaties, and visits of foreign delegations?
A
Foreign Affairs Division
✓ Correct
B
Commerce Division
C
Interior Division
D
Defence Division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 11 requires mandatory consultation with the Foreign Affairs Division on all international agreements, interactions with foreign governments, and attendance at international conferences.
Q. 12
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 14 of the Rules of Business 1973, where two or more Divisions disagree on an inter-ministerial policy matter after formal consultation, how is the dispute resolved?
A
The matter is submitted to the Prime Minister (or the Cabinet) for decision, typically via a joint Summary
✓ Correct
B
The matter is referred to the Supreme Court for commercial arbitration
C
The Division with the oldest Secretary wins automatically
D
The matter is immediately abandoned and dropped permanently
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 14(1) dictates that if the consulting Divisions cannot reach an agreement, the initiating Division shall submit the case to the Prime Minister (or to the Cabinet) for a final binding decision.
Q. 13
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 16 of the Rules of Business 1973, which of the following cases MUST be brought before the Federal Cabinet?
A
Proposals for federal legislation (including Presidential Ordinances), key international treaties, Annual Budget Statement, and major policy decisions
✓ Correct
B
Granting casual leave to a junior clerk
C
Purchasing office stationery under Rs. 10,000
D
Repairing a broken office water cooler
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 16(1) lists cases that must be brought before Cabinet: legislative proposals, treaties, national budget, broad policy shifts, implementation of national plans, and matters where ministers disagree.
Q. 14
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 18 of the Rules of Business 1973, how is a case submitted to the Federal Cabinet for consideration?
A
In the form of a concise, self-contained memorandum termed a 'Summary for the Cabinet'
✓ Correct
B
By sending all raw historical paper files in physical sacks
C
By sending an informal WhatsApp text to ministers
D
By publishing a notice in a local daily newspaper
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 18 requires that a case submitted for Cabinet consideration shall take the form of a 'Summary for the Cabinet', drafted concisely and objectively by the sponsoring Division.
Q. 15
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the standard mandatory components of a 'Summary for the Cabinet' prepared under Rule 18 of the Rules of Business 1973?
A
Heading, Sponsoring Division, Subject, Background/Facts of the case, Proposal, Views of consulted Divisions, and explicit approval sought from Cabinet
✓ Correct
B
Only the signatures of junior clerks
C
Photographs of office furniture
D
Full transcripts of court arguments
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 18(2) and Cabinet Secretariat guidelines, a Cabinet Summary must be structured with: Heading, Sponsoring Division, Subject, History/Facts, Financial/Legal Implications, Views of Ministries consulted, and specific Recommendation/Proposal.
Q. 16
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 18(6) of the Rules of Business 1973, a Summary for the Cabinet must be approved and signed by the:
A
Minister in charge (and initiated by the Secretary of the Division)
✓ Correct
B
Section Officer only
C
Supreme Court Registrar
D
Private sector corporate contractor
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 18(6), every Summary for the Cabinet must be signed by the Minister-in-charge (or Minister of State) before transmission to the Cabinet Secretary.
Q. 17
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 17 of the Rules of Business 1973, can a decision of the Federal Cabinet be taken by 'Circulation' without convening a physical meeting?
A
Yes, if the Prime Minister so directs, the Cabinet Secretary circulates the summary to Ministers for their written views within a prescribed time limit
✓ Correct
B
No, circulation is strictly forbidden under the Constitution
C
Yes, but only during wartime emergencies
D
Only if approved by unanimous parliamentary resolution
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 17(1) provides for Cabinet Decision by Circulation: When the Prime Minister so directs, the Cabinet Secretary circulates the summary to all Ministers, and if accepted without objection, it is recorded as a Cabinet decision.
Q. 18
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Who records the official minutes and decisions of the Federal Cabinet meetings in Pakistan?
A
The Cabinet Secretary (head of the Cabinet Division)
✓ Correct
B
The Attorney General of Pakistan
C
The Speaker of the National Assembly
D
The Secretary Law
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 20 of the Rules of Business, the Cabinet Secretary attends all Cabinet meetings and is responsible for preparing and circulating the formal record of decisions of the Cabinet.
Q. 19
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24 of the Rules of Business 1973, which major statutory standing committee of the Federal Cabinet coordinates and approves macro-economic and financial policy decisions?
A
Economic Coordination Committee (ECC) of the Cabinet
✓ Correct
B
Cabinet Committee on Sports
C
National Assembly Public Accounts Committee
D
Senate Standing Committee on Defence
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Economic Coordination Committee (ECC) of the Cabinet is the principal executive economic committee of the Federal Government, chaired by the Finance Minister, taking decisions on pricing, imports, subsidies, and fiscal stability.
Q. 20
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24, which standing committee of the Federal Cabinet is responsible for reviewing and approving privatization proposals and restructuring of State-Owned Enterprises (SOEs)?
A
Cabinet Committee on Privatization (CCOP)
✓ Correct
B
Council of Common Interests (CCI)
C
National Economic Council (NEC)
D
Federal Public Service Commission (FPSC)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Cabinet Committee on Privatization (CCOP) reviews privatization transactions, disinvestment strategies, and restructuring plans for public sector commercial enterprises.
Q. 21
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24, which Cabinet Committee reviews energy sector policies, power tariffs, and fuel supply contracts in Pakistan?
A
Cabinet Committee on Energy (CCoE)
✓ Correct
B
Cabinet Committee on Disposal of Legislative Cases (CCLC)
C
Cabinet Committee on Institutional Reforms (CCIR)
D
Atomic Energy Commission
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Cabinet Committee on Energy (CCoE) oversees petroleum, power generation, LNG imports, and circular debt management across the national energy sector.
Q. 22
Office Governance
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 24, which Cabinet Committee is mandated to scrutinize, review, and clear legislative drafts, bills, and ordinances before submission to the full Cabinet?
A
Cabinet Committee for Disposal of Legislative Cases (CCLC)
✓ Correct
B
Economic Coordination Committee (ECC)
C
Public Accounts Committee (PAC)
D
National Security Committee (NSC)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The CCLC (Cabinet Committee for Disposal of Legislative Cases), chaired by the Minister for Law & Justice, conducts detailed clause-by-clause legal examination of draft legislation prior to Cabinet endorsement.
Q. 23
Office Governance
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which Schedule to the Rules of Business 1973 lists cases that must be submitted to the Prime Minister for his prior personal approval?
A
Schedule V-A and Schedule V-B
✓ Correct
B
Schedule I
C
Schedule II
D
Schedule VII
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Schedule V-A lists cases to be submitted to the Prime Minister for his orders, and Schedule V-B lists cases to be submitted to the Prime Minister for information.
Q. 24
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Rule 15(1) of the Rules of Business 1973, who is the competent authority to appoint a Federal Secretary to head a Division?
A
The Prime Minister of Pakistan
✓ Correct
B
The Federal Public Service Commission
C
The President on advice of the Senate
D
The Chief Justice of Pakistan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the Rules of Business and Civil Servants (APT) Rules, the appointment and transfer of Secretaries and Additional Secretaries to the Federal Government (BS-21/22) is made by the Prime Minister.
Q. 25
Office Governance
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In the Federal Secretariat, what is the role of a 'Minister of State' under the Rules of Business?
A
A junior minister appointed to assist the Federal Minister in a Division, performing duties assigned by the Federal Minister or Prime Minister
✓ Correct
B
The governor of a province
C
An ambassador representing Pakistan abroad
D
The chief minister of a federal territory
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Rule 5, a Minister of State performs such functions and exercises such powers in the Division as may be assigned to him by the Federal Minister or Prime Minister.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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