📖 Tier 1: Prepare & Study Guide
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HVAC SUPERVISOR (BS-16) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
NTS Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
6519 Total
Questions
~9779 mins Read
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4 Subject Areas
🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy
✓ 100% Comprehensive Guide
📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide
Candidate Selection Architecture for HVAC SUPERVISOR (BS-16)
📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint
The competitive recruitment screening for HVAC SUPERVISOR (BS-16) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Practical Electrical & Power Systems, Quantitative Aptitude Test, English Language Comprehension, and General Knowledge. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.
| Examination Subject / Question Type | Target Marks | Weightage | Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark |
|---|---|---|---|
| Practical Electrical & Power Systems | 50 MCQs | 50% | HVAC & Refrigeration Cycles, Electrical Distribution & Protection Relays, Motor Controls & Wiring Standards, Industrial Troubleshooting |
| Quantitative Aptitude Test | 20 MCQs | 20% | Arithmetic calculations, algebra, geometric reasoning, quantitative problem solving |
| English Language Comprehension | 15 MCQs | 15% | Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension |
| General Knowledge | 15 MCQs | 15% | World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts |
💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios
Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:
Scenario 1: Authentic Practical Scenario 1 for Hvac Supervisor
Operational Dilemma: A sudden drop in temperature is reported in one of the club's meeting rooms. The Hvac Supervisor must diagnose the issue and implement a solution.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Check thermostat settings, inspect ductwork for blockages, verify fan operation, and adjust system controls. If issues persist, consult with senior engineers for further diagnosis.
Standard: Proper use of diagnostic tools and adherence to safety protocols.
Scenario 2: Authentic Practical Scenario 2 for Hvac Supervisor
Operational Dilemma: An unexpected power outage occurs, causing the HVAC system to shut down. The Supervisor must ensure the system restarts safely and efficiently.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Verify emergency power supply, check for any tripped circuit breakers, and restart the system according to the emergency procedure checklist.
Standard: Compliance with emergency response protocols and safety guidelines.
Scenario 3: Authentic Practical Scenario 3 for Hvac Supervisor
Operational Dilemma: A member reports a persistent noise from the air conditioning unit. The Supervisor must identify the source of the noise and recommend a course of action.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Inspect the unit for loose components, check for debris or obstructions, and listen for unusual sounds. Recommend cleaning or replacement of faulty parts.
Standard: Use of diagnostic tools and adherence to maintenance procedures.
🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview
Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.
Q1: Realistic interview / viva question 1 for Hvac Supervisor?
Model Response: Explain the process of diagnosing and repairing a malfunctioning HVAC system.
Q2: Realistic interview / viva question 2 for Hvac Supervisor?
Model Response: Describe your approach to ensuring energy efficiency in HVAC systems.
Q3: Realistic interview / viva question 3 for Hvac Supervisor?
Model Response: How do you ensure compliance with safety regulations when performing HVAC maintenance?
Q4: Realistic interview / viva question 4 for Hvac Supervisor?
Model Response: Discuss your experience in training junior staff on HVAC system operation and maintenance.
📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap
Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:
- Days 1-5: Practical Electrical & Power Systems Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
- Days 6-8: Quantitative Aptitude Test Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
- Days 9-11: English Language Comprehension & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
- Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
- Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.
✅ 5. Examination Day Protocol & Merit Optimization Strategy
Candidates appearing for the HVAC SUPERVISOR (BS-16) (BS-16) screening examination should strictly observe official test center protocols: carry the original CNIC, printed Roll Number Slip, and black or blue ballpoint pens for OMR bubble shading. Allocate the first 45 minutes to high-confidence questions in Practical Electrical & Power Systems and Quantitative Aptitude Test before attempting multi-step analytical items. Maintain a minimum 80% accuracy rate across attempted items to absorb any negative marking deductions and secure a top-decile merit ranking for the Departmental Selection Committee interview.
Q. 1
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q1: In practical electrical wiring (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards), what is the installation rule for standard single-phase wiring u?
A
Standard single-phase wiring uses Brown for Live, Blue for Neutral, and Green/Yellow for Earth (IEC 60446).
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Standard single-phase wiring uses Brown for Live, Blue for Neutral, and Green/Yellow for Earth (IEC 60446).
Q. 2
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q2: How is balanced 3-phase systems feature th correctly implemented in residential/industrial installations (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards)?
A
Balanced 3-phase systems feature three line voltages displaced by 120 degrees electrical.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Balanced 3-phase systems feature three line voltages displaced by 120 degrees electrical.
Q. 3
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q3: Under electrical wiring code (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards), which standard specifies staircase lighting uses two 2-wa?
A
Staircase lighting uses two 2-way SPDT switches connected via two traveler strapping wires.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Staircase lighting uses two 2-way SPDT switches connected via two traveler strapping wires.
Q. 4
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q4: In building electrical installations (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards), what requirement governs controlling lights from 3+ loc?
A
Controlling lights from 3+ locations requires Intermediate (4-terminal crossover) switches between 2-way switches.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Controlling lights from 3+ locations requires Intermediate (4-terminal crossover) switches between 2-way switches.
Q. 5
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q5: How does an electrician wire and troubleshoot ring main socket circuits lo in Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards?
A
Ring main socket circuits loop from and return to the DB, providing two parallel current paths.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Ring main socket circuits loop from and return to the DB, providing two parallel current paths.
Q. 6
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q6: Under 3-phase and single-phase wiring regulations (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards), what rule dictates loop-in lighting wiring makes all?
A
Loop-in lighting wiring makes all cable joints accessible inside switches or ceiling roses.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Loop-in lighting wiring makes all cable joints accessible inside switches or ceiling roses.
Q. 7
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q7: In motor control and branch circuit wiring (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards), which standard applies to heavy thermal appliances (ac, g?
A
Heavy thermal appliances (AC, geysers) require dedicated 15A/16A power sockets with 4.0 mm² cables.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Heavy thermal appliances (AC, geysers) require dedicated 15A/16A power sockets with 4.0 mm² cables.
Q. 8
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q8: What is the safety and operational purpose of single-pole light control swi in Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards?
A
Single-pole light control switches must ALWAYS be connected in series with the Live (Phase) wire.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Single-pole light control switches must ALWAYS be connected in series with the Live (Phase) wire.
Q. 9
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q9: In practical electrical wiring (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards), what is the installation rule for maximum allowable voltage drop?
A
Maximum allowable voltage drop is 3% for lighting circuits and 5% for power socket circuits.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Maximum allowable voltage drop is 3% for lighting circuits and 5% for power socket circuits.
Q. 10
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q10: How is conduit space fill factor must not correctly implemented in residential/industrial installations (Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards)?
A
Conduit space fill factor must not exceed 40% to allow heat dissipation and easy cable pulling.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Single & 3-Phase Wiring Standards: Conduit space fill factor must not exceed 40% to allow heat dissipation and easy cable pulling.
Q. 11
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q11: In practical electrical wiring (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring), what is the installation rule for power factor correction capaci?
A
Power factor correction capacitor banks connect in parallel to supply leading kVAR to inductive motor loads.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Power factor correction capacitor banks connect in parallel to supply leading kVAR to inductive motor loads.
Q. 12
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q12: How is flexible cords must match appliance correctly implemented in residential/industrial installations (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring)?
A
Flexible cords must match appliance ampacity: 0.75 mm² (6A), 1.5 mm² (16A), and 2.5 mm² (25A).
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Flexible cords must match appliance ampacity: 0.75 mm² (6A), 1.5 mm² (16A), and 2.5 mm² (25A).
Q. 13
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q13: Under electrical wiring code (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring), which standard specifies industrial perforated metal cabl?
A
Industrial perforated metal cable trays must be continuously bonded to the Main Earthing Terminal.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Industrial perforated metal cable trays must be continuously bonded to the Main Earthing Terminal.
Q. 14
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q14: In building electrical installations (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring), what requirement governs star-delta starters reduce mot?
A
Star-Delta starters reduce motor starting inrush current to 1/3 by starting in Star before switching to Delta.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Star-Delta starters reduce motor starting inrush current to 1/3 by starting in Star before switching to Delta.
Q. 15
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q15: How does an electrician wire and troubleshoot direct-on-line (dol) starter in Industrial Motor Control & Wiring?
A
Direct-On-Line (DOL) starters connect motors across full line voltage with a contactor and thermal overload relay.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Direct-On-Line (DOL) starters connect motors across full line voltage with a contactor and thermal overload relay.
Q. 16
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q16: Under 3-phase and single-phase wiring regulations (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring), what rule dictates single-phasing occurs when one su?
A
Single-phasing occurs when one supply line opens, drawing excessive current on remaining lines and burning windings.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Single-phasing occurs when one supply line opens, drawing excessive current on remaining lines and burning windings.
Q. 17
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q17: In motor control and branch circuit wiring (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring), which standard applies to ceiling fan speed regulators us?
A
Ceiling fan speed regulators use non-dissipative capacitors or triac circuits to vary motor terminal voltage.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Ceiling fan speed regulators use non-dissipative capacitors or triac circuits to vary motor terminal voltage.
Q. 18
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q18: What is the safety and operational purpose of normally open (green) buttons in Industrial Motor Control & Wiring?
A
Normally Open (Green) buttons start contactors with 13-14 seal-in contacts; Normally Closed (Red) buttons stop circuits.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Normally Open (Green) buttons start contactors with 13-14 seal-in contacts; Normally Closed (Red) buttons stop circuits.
Q. 19
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q19: In practical electrical wiring (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring), what is the installation rule for photocells (cds ldrs) automati?
A
Photocells (CdS LDRs) automatically switch street lights ON at dusk and OFF at dawn with built-in time delay.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Photocells (CdS LDRs) automatically switch street lights ON at dusk and OFF at dawn with built-in time delay.
Q. 20
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Q20: How is concealed pvc conduit embedded in b correctly implemented in residential/industrial installations (Industrial Motor Control & Wiring)?
A
Concealed PVC conduit embedded in brickwork provides superior mechanical isolation and fire resistance.
✓ Correct
B
Directly shorting live phase conductors to earth ground
C
Using flammable paper insulation inside distribution conduits
D
Connecting single-pole switches on the neutral line
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Industrial Motor Control & Wiring: Concealed PVC conduit embedded in brickwork provides superior mechanical isolation and fire resistance.
Q. 21
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Q21: In electrical installation practice #21, what is the purpose of a 'Ceiling Rose'?
A
To provide a secure, standardized connection point between fixed ceiling wiring and flexible pendant lamp cords
✓ Correct
B
To convert alternating current into 12V direct current
C
To act as a high-voltage lightning surge diverter
D
To amplify incoming line voltage
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A ceiling rose terminates fixed conduit wiring and connects flexible cords to light fittings.
Q. 22
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Q22: In electrical installation practice #22, what is the purpose of a 'Ceiling Rose'?
A
To provide a secure, standardized connection point between fixed ceiling wiring and flexible pendant lamp cords
✓ Correct
B
To convert alternating current into 12V direct current
C
To act as a high-voltage lightning surge diverter
D
To amplify incoming line voltage
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A ceiling rose terminates fixed conduit wiring and connects flexible cords to light fittings.
Q. 23
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Q23: In electrical installation practice #23, what is the purpose of a 'Ceiling Rose'?
A
To provide a secure, standardized connection point between fixed ceiling wiring and flexible pendant lamp cords
✓ Correct
B
To convert alternating current into 12V direct current
C
To act as a high-voltage lightning surge diverter
D
To amplify incoming line voltage
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A ceiling rose terminates fixed conduit wiring and connects flexible cords to light fittings.
Q. 24
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Q24: In electrical installation practice #24, what is the purpose of a 'Ceiling Rose'?
A
To provide a secure, standardized connection point between fixed ceiling wiring and flexible pendant lamp cords
✓ Correct
B
To convert alternating current into 12V direct current
C
To act as a high-voltage lightning surge diverter
D
To amplify incoming line voltage
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A ceiling rose terminates fixed conduit wiring and connects flexible cords to light fittings.
Q. 25
Practical Electrical & Power Systems
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Q25: In electrical installation practice #25, what is the purpose of a 'Ceiling Rose'?
A
To provide a secure, standardized connection point between fixed ceiling wiring and flexible pendant lamp cords
✓ Correct
B
To convert alternating current into 12V direct current
C
To act as a high-voltage lightning surge diverter
D
To amplify incoming line voltage
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A ceiling rose terminates fixed conduit wiring and connects flexible cords to light fittings.
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All 400 Solved Questions in Practical Electrical & Power Systems Loaded!
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Q. 1
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Spending Rs 10.00 on 50p and 20p stamps; greatest number of 50p stamps?
A
10
B
12
C
14
D
16
E
18
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
18×50p=900p. Remaining 100p allows 5×20p stamps. Total is 1000p (Rs 10).
Q. 2
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Ship: 6 miles W, 6 miles S, 6 miles W. Total distance from port?
A
9
B
11
C
13
✓ Correct
D
15
E
17
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Net displacement: 12 miles West, 6 miles South. Distance = 122+62≈13.4.
Q. 3
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much is $\frac{1}{4} of \frac{x}{4}$?
A
4x
B
x
C
$\frac{1}{x}$
D
$\frac{x}{16}$
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
$\frac{4}{4}×\frac{x}{4}=\frac{x}{16}$.
Q. 4
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is $\frac{1}{5}$ of $\frac{x}{5}$?
A
25x
B
$\frac{1}{25}$
C
$\frac{1}{x}$
D
$\frac{x}{25}$
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
$\left(\frac{1}{5}\right) \times \left(\frac{x}{5}\right) = \frac{x}{25}$
Q. 5
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Find the odd man out: 3 6 9 12 15 17
A
15
B
17
✓ Correct
C
3
D
9
E
6
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
17 is the only number in the sequence that is not a multiple of 3.
Q. 6
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Insert the missing number in Triangle grid [11, 242, 3; 13, 338, 2]
A
120
B
162
✓ Correct
C
260
D
164
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Triangle 1:
Right vertex: \(\frac{6}{2} = \mathbf{3}\)
Center: \(11^2 \times 2 = 121 \times 2 = \mathbf{242}\)
Triangle 2:
Right vertex: \(\frac{4}{2} = \mathbf{2}\)
Center: \(13^2 \times 2 = 169 \times 2 = \mathbf{338}\)
Solving for Triangle 3
Using the same pattern where \(\text{Left} = 9\) and \(\text{Bottom} = 4\):
Find the right side (?): \(\text{Right}=\frac{4}{2}=\mathbf{2}\)
Find the center (?): \(\text{Center}=9^{2}\times 2=81\times 2=\mathbf{162}\)
Right vertex: \(\frac{6}{2} = \mathbf{3}\)
Center: \(11^2 \times 2 = 121 \times 2 = \mathbf{242}\)
Triangle 2:
Right vertex: \(\frac{4}{2} = \mathbf{2}\)
Center: \(13^2 \times 2 = 169 \times 2 = \mathbf{338}\)
Solving for Triangle 3
Using the same pattern where \(\text{Left} = 9\) and \(\text{Bottom} = 4\):
Find the right side (?): \(\text{Right}=\frac{4}{2}=\mathbf{2}\)
Find the center (?): \(\text{Center}=9^{2}\times 2=81\times 2=\mathbf{162}\)
Q. 7
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Missing number in Triangle [9, 3, 7, 21; 16, ?, 21, 42]
A
8
✓ Correct
B
6
C
4
D
2
E
10
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Pattern
The number in the center is found by multiplying the left and right numbers together, then dividing by the bottom number:
\(\text{Center}=\frac{\text{Left}\times \text{Right}}{\text{Bottom}}\)
Verification
First Triangle:
\(\frac{9\times 7}{21}=\frac{63}{21}=\mathbf{3}\)
Solving for the Second TriangleSecond Triangle:
\(\frac{16\times 21}{42}=\frac{336}{42}=\mathbf{8}\)
The number in the center is found by multiplying the left and right numbers together, then dividing by the bottom number:
\(\text{Center}=\frac{\text{Left}\times \text{Right}}{\text{Bottom}}\)
Verification
First Triangle:
\(\frac{9\times 7}{21}=\frac{63}{21}=\mathbf{3}\)
Solving for the Second TriangleSecond Triangle:
\(\frac{16\times 21}{42}=\frac{336}{42}=\mathbf{8}\)
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
1 Question in this set
ANALYSIS (Direction Sense): Solve spatial reasoning problems involving multiple turns, clock hand orientations, relative positions on a grid, and displacement from a starting point.
Q. 8
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A man started walking from North to South. He turned right at right angles then again right at right angles. In which direction was he ultimately walking?
Correct Answer / Solution Key:
C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Initial Direction: The man starts walking toward the South.
First Right Turn: Facing South, turning right at a right angle makes him face West.
Second Right Turn: Facing West, turning right again at a right angle makes him face North.
First Right Turn: Facing South, turning right at a right angle makes him face West.
Second Right Turn: Facing West, turning right again at a right angle makes him face North.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
6 Questions in this set
Numerical Aptitude Tests: These tests are designed to discover whether the candidate has the basic talent for solving simple problems in numerical, arithmetic, geometry, algebra, business calculations, etc.
Q. 9
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Four squares side by side form a rectangle, perimeter 140. Area of each square?
A
400
B
360
C
300
D
256
E
196
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Let side be s. Perimeter P=2(4s+s)=10s=140⟹s=14. Area = 142=196.
Q. 10
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A man buys a television set which lists for Rs. 2000 at a 10% discount. He gets an additional 2% discount for paying cash. What does he actually pay for the set?
A
Rs. 1760
B
Rs. 1700
C
Rs. 1800
D
Rs. 1764.00
✓ Correct
E
Rs. 1720.80
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
2000×0.9=1800.
Cash discount:
1800×0.98=1764.
Cash discount:
1800×0.98=1764.
Q. 11
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
If y−7=12, then y+19= ——?
A
19
B
28
C
38
✓ Correct
D
42
E
50
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
y=12+7=19. Therefore, y+19=19+19=38.
Q. 12
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
11.5×0.003= ——?
A
0.345
B
0.0345
✓ Correct
C
0.00345
D
0.000345
E
3.45e-05
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Direct multiplication: 11.5×0.003=0.0345.
Q. 13
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
12 students average 70%. 18 others average 80%. Overall average percentage of thirty students?
A
73$\frac{3}{4}$
B
74$\frac{3}{8}$
C
75$\frac{1}{4}$
D
76
✓ Correct
E
77$\frac{1}{8}$
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Weighted avg: (12×70+18×80)/30=(840+1440)/30=76.
Q. 14
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Angle RST=120; Angle RSQ=92; Angle PST=70. How many Degrees in angle PSQ?
A
40
B
42
✓ Correct
C
45
D
48
E
51
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Angle PSQ = (RSQ + PST) - RST = (92+70)−120=162−120=42.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
6 Questions in this set
Graph Analysis (Marriages & Births): The following graphs are to be used for Questions 7-12, depicting trends in young people (18-24 years), marriage rates, and birth rates from 1953 to 1968.
Q. 15
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
During which time period was there the sharpest increase in marriages?
A
1955-1956
B
1957-1958
✓ Correct
C
1961-1962
D
1964-1965
E
1967-1999
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on visual slope analysis of the "Rising Marriages" graph.
Q. 16
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What was the average number of births per year from 1967 through 1967?
A
3.7 million
B
3.55 million
✓ Correct
C
4.0 million
D
3.8 million
E
3.4 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The graph "Falling Births" shows the value for the year 1967 is approximately 3.55 million.
Q. 17
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Ratio of young people to number of births for the year 1954?
A
2.83
B
4.1
C
3.75
✓ Correct
D
8
E
2.4
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Young people (1954) ≈ 15m; Births (1954) ≈ 4m. Ratio 15/4=3.75.
Q. 18
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Marriages in 2000 if 1965-2000 rate of increase remains constant?
A
1.8 million
B
2.0 million
C
2.2 million
D
2.7 million
✓ Correct
E
2.9 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Increase over 3 years (1965 to 1968):
\(21.3 - 20.8 = 0.5\text{ units}\)
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{0.5}{3} \approx 0.1667\text{ units per year}\)
Time span from 1965 to 2000: \(2000 - 1965 = 35\text{ years}\)
Total projected increase by 2000: \(35 \times 0.1667 \approx 5.83\text{ units}\)
Projected value in 2000: \(20.8 + 5.83 = 26.63\text{ units}\)
Converting this back to the scale of millions yields approximately 2.66 million, which rounds cleanly to 2.7 million.
\(21.3 - 20.8 = 0.5\text{ units}\)
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{0.5}{3} \approx 0.1667\text{ units per year}\)
Time span from 1965 to 2000: \(2000 - 1965 = 35\text{ years}\)
Total projected increase by 2000: \(35 \times 0.1667 \approx 5.83\text{ units}\)
Projected value in 2000: \(20.8 + 5.83 = 26.63\text{ units}\)
Converting this back to the scale of millions yields approximately 2.66 million, which rounds cleanly to 2.7 million.
Q. 19
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How many marriages occurred as the final approximate total in three different years?
A
1.7 million
✓ Correct
B
1.3 million
C
1.55 million
D
1.45 million
E
1.9 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
If you look at the horizontal level of 17 (representing 1.7 million marriages) on the y-axis, the line touches or crosses this exact value at three different points in time:
1953: The graph starts right at approximately 1.7 million.
1956: The first sharp peak returns exactly to that same height of 1.7 million.
1958–1959: As the line makes its final sharp upward climb towards the 20 mark, it crosses the 1.7 million threshold for the third time.
1953: The graph starts right at approximately 1.7 million.
1956: The first sharp peak returns exactly to that same height of 1.7 million.
1958–1959: As the line makes its final sharp upward climb towards the 20 mark, it crosses the 1.7 million threshold for the third time.
Q. 20
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Govt collection 1966: Rs 200/marriage, Rs 100/birth, Rs 20/young person?
A
Rs. 260 million
B
Rs. 480 million
C
Rs. 820 million
D
Rs. 1160 million
✓ Correct
E
Rs. 1500 million
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Number of Marriages (Top-Right Graph):
In 1966, the marriage value is approximately 21 (which corresponds to 2.1 million marriages).
\(\text{Collection from Marriages}=2.1\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }200=\text{Rs }420 \text{ million}\)
Number of Births (Bottom Graph):
In 1966, the birth line settles right at 3.55 million births.
\(\text{Collection from Births}=3.55\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }100=\text{Rs }355\text{ million}\)
Number of Young People (Top-Left Graph):
In 1966, the line sits at approximately 19.25 million young people.
\(\text{Collection from Young People}=19.25\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }20=\text{Rs }385\text{ million}\)
Total Government Collection:
\(\text{Total Collection}=420+355+385=\text{Rs }\mathbf{1160}\text{ million}\)
In 1966, the marriage value is approximately 21 (which corresponds to 2.1 million marriages).
\(\text{Collection from Marriages}=2.1\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }200=\text{Rs }420 \text{ million}\)
Number of Births (Bottom Graph):
In 1966, the birth line settles right at 3.55 million births.
\(\text{Collection from Births}=3.55\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }100=\text{Rs }355\text{ million}\)
Number of Young People (Top-Left Graph):
In 1966, the line sits at approximately 19.25 million young people.
\(\text{Collection from Young People}=19.25\text{ million}\times \text{Rs }20=\text{Rs }385\text{ million}\)
Total Government Collection:
\(\text{Total Collection}=420+355+385=\text{Rs }\mathbf{1160}\text{ million}\)
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
5 Questions in this set
Pie Chart Analysis: Questions 15-19 are based on the pie charts below showing Insurance Death Benefits Payments in the U.S. in 1992 and 2002.
Q. 21
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Central angle of the sector for Industrial Insurance (1992)?
A
28
B
30
C
32
D
34
E
36
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Industrial = 10% of 360 degrees = 36 degrees.
Q. 22
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
If 50m paid in 2001, how many millions were from Group insurance?
A
13
B
14.5
C
16
D
17.5
✓ Correct
E
19
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Total growth over the 10-year period (1992 to 2002): \(35\% - 25\% = 10\%\)
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{10\%}{10\text{ years}} = 1\%\text{ per year}\)
Projected percentage for 2001 (9 years after 1992): \(25\% + (9 \times 1\%) = 34\%\)
Amount from Group Insurance (out of 50 million):\(50\text{ million}\times 34\%=50\times 0.34=17.0\text{ million}\)
Among the given multiple-choice options, 17.5 (D) is the closest standard approximation used for this dataset.
Annual rate of increase: \(\frac{10\%}{10\text{ years}} = 1\%\text{ per year}\)
Projected percentage for 2001 (9 years after 1992): \(25\% + (9 \times 1\%) = 34\%\)
Amount from Group Insurance (out of 50 million):\(50\text{ million}\times 34\%=50\times 0.34=17.0\text{ million}\)
Among the given multiple-choice options, 17.5 (D) is the closest standard approximation used for this dataset.
Q. 23
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the 1992, what was the ratio of the payments from Group insurance to those of Group insurance?
A
5:2
✓ Correct
B
5:1
C
3:2
D
3:1
E
5:3
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ratio = 25% (Group) : 10% (Industrial) = 25 : 10 = 5 : 2.
Q. 24
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What was the approximate percentage increase in Group insurance payments from 1992 to 2002, if the total insurance payments were the same in both years?
A
30
B
35
C
40
✓ Correct
D
45
E
50
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Increase from 25% to 35% of the total. Relative increase: (35−25)/25=40%.
Q. 25
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
If 50m paid in 2002, millions from Industrial Insurance?
A
5
B
6
✓ Correct
C
7
D
8
E
10
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
2002 Industrial = 12%. 50×0.12=6.
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📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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