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Instructions / Reading Passage
1 Question in this set
ANALYSIS (Direction Sense): Solve spatial reasoning problems involving multiple turns, clock hand orientations, relative positions on a grid, and displacement from a starting point.
Q. 1
Quantitative Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
A man started walking from North to South. He turned right at right angles then again right at right angles. In which direction was he ultimately walking?
Correct Answer / Solution Key:
C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Initial Direction: The man starts walking toward the South.
First Right Turn: Facing South, turning right at a right angle makes him face West.
Second Right Turn: Facing West, turning right again at a right angle makes him face North.
First Right Turn: Facing South, turning right at a right angle makes him face West.
Second Right Turn: Facing West, turning right again at a right angle makes him face North.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
15 Questions in this set
Test of Alertness: Point out the correct choice based on the logic provided in each problem.
Q. 2
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Ali is 20 years younger than 3/5 of his actual age. What is the present age of Ali?
Correct Answer / Solution Key:
50 years
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Derived from the equation x−3/5x=20⟹2/5x=20⟹x=50.
Q. 3
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Javed increases his speed half as much again and Usman increases his twice as much again. Initial speed 8. Difference?
A
4 miles
B
12 miles
✓ Correct
C
2 miles
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Javed: 8+4=12. Usman: 8+16=24. Difference: 24−12=12.
Q. 4
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In a partitioned room there are cats and fowls. They have 15 heads and 50 feet. How many cats?
A
12
B
13
C
10
✓ Correct
D
14
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
C+F=15 and 4C+2F=50. Solving for C yields 10 cats and 5 fowls.
Q. 5
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A is 5 years younger than B who is 3 times old as C. C was 10, 4 years ago. A's age?
A
40 years
B
30 years
C
37 years
✓ Correct
D
35 years
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
C is 14; B is 42; A is 42−5=37. [Note: key refers to present age].
Q. 6
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Find the valve of X in the following: 9 1 25 64 / 16 4 X 81 / 25 9 49 100
A
121
B
36
✓ Correct
C
25
D
49
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Every number in the grid is a perfect square. If you look at the square roots of the numbers column by column, they increase by exactly 1 as you go down each row:
Column 1: \(\sqrt{9}=3\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{16}=4\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{25}=5\)
Column 2: \(\sqrt{1}=1\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{4}=2\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{9}=3\)
Column 4: \(\sqrt{64}=8\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{81}=9\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{100}=10\)
Following this exact pattern for Column 3:
Row 1: \(\sqrt{25} = 5\)
Row 2: Must be \(6\) (since \(5 + 1 = 6\))
Row 3: \(\sqrt{49} = 7\)
Since the square root must be 6, the value of X is \(6^2 = \mathbf{36}\).
Column 1: \(\sqrt{9}=3\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{16}=4\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{25}=5\)
Column 2: \(\sqrt{1}=1\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{4}=2\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{9}=3\)
Column 4: \(\sqrt{64}=8\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{81}=9\) \(\rightarrow \) \(\sqrt{100}=10\)
Following this exact pattern for Column 3:
Row 1: \(\sqrt{25} = 5\)
Row 2: Must be \(6\) (since \(5 + 1 = 6\))
Row 3: \(\sqrt{49} = 7\)
Since the square root must be 6, the value of X is \(6^2 = \mathbf{36}\).
Q. 7
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Find a number which when divided by 4 exceeds 80 by as much as it short of 160 now.
Correct Answer / Solution Key:
120
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Derived from the equation x/4−80=160−x/4⟹2x/4=240⟹x/4=120.
Q. 8
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which pair of numbers is dissimilar to others in the following?
A
533-527
B
461-457
C
223-214
✓ Correct
D
13—5
E
318-313
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The other pairs follow specific difference patterns or prime-related traits not shared by choice (c).
Q. 9
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Two numbers consist of the same two digits in reverse order. If the difference is 54, what are the numbers?
Correct Answer / Solution Key:
(28, 82)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
82−28=54; these two digits (2, 8) in reverse satisfy the problem's criteria.
Q. 10
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
My age is 3/4th of my brother’s age and the difference is 6 years. My brother’s age?
A
36 years
B
14 years
C
24 years
✓ Correct
D
28 years
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
B−3/4B=6⟹1/4B=6⟹B=24.
Q. 11
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Multiply a number 2 and add 3... added 3 first and multiplied by 2... got 20. Correct answer?
A
19
B
23
C
17
✓ Correct
D
20
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Second student: 2(x+3)=20⟹x=7. First student: 2(7)+3=14+3=17.
Q. 12
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
System where + is x, - is ÷, x is +, ÷ is -. Expression: 300+5—15x7
A
16
B
300
C
1625
D
107
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Transformed expression: 300×5÷15+7=1500÷15+7=100+7=107.
Q. 13
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A student has thrice as many wrong sums as he had right. If 32 in all, how many correctly?
A
4
B
6
C
8
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Let R be right: R+3R=32⟹4R=32⟹R=8.
Q. 14
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Name the two choices which are composed of the same digits: (1) 74281 (2) 71854 (3) 64253 (4) 24187 (5) 26518 (6) 48256
A
(6) (3)
B
(1) (2)
C
(1) (4)
✓ Correct
D
(5) (2)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Both (1) 74281 and (4) 24187 consist of the digits {1, 2, 4, 7, 8}.
Q. 15
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Ratio 1:5. Add 5 to each, becomes 1:4. Pair of numbers?
A
20, 100
B
10, 50
C
16, 80
D
15, 75
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
x/5x=1/5; (x+5)/(5x+5)=1/4⟹4x+20=5x+5⟹x=15.
Q. 16
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Harpreet decreased by 20 and then added 20% to result. Final differed by 8. Number?
A
400
B
300
C
100
D
200
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Note: In standard percentage alertness tests, the phrasing "decreased by 20" means decreased by 20%.
Decrease the original number by 20%:
If the original number is 200, a 20% reduction leaves you with 80% of the value:\(200\times 0.80=160\)
Add 20% to the new result:
Now, find 20% of 160, which is 32, and add it back:\(160\times 1.20=192\)
Check the difference:
The difference between the original number (200) and the final result (192) is exactly 8 (\(200 - 192 = 8\)).
Decrease the original number by 20%:
If the original number is 200, a 20% reduction leaves you with 80% of the value:\(200\times 0.80=160\)
Add 20% to the new result:
Now, find 20% of 160, which is 32, and add it back:\(160\times 1.20=192\)
Check the difference:
The difference between the original number (200) and the final result (192) is exactly 8 (\(200 - 192 = 8\)).
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
9 Questions in this set
MISSING NUMBERS AND LETTERS: In these questions, a relationship or pattern exists between the numbers outside the brackets and the number inside. Discover the pattern and find the missing number for the second set.
Q. 17
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
196 (25) 324 ... 329 ( ) 137
A
39
B
25
✓ Correct
C
45
D
85
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Pattern: Sum of digits of both outer numbers. (1+9+6=16;3+2+4=9;16+9=25). For 329,137: (3+2+9)+(1+3+7)=14+11=25.
Q. 18
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
651 (331) 342 ... 449 ( ) 523
A
155
B
168
C
324
✓ Correct
D
365
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The number inside the parentheses is calculated by adding the two outside numbers together and dividing their sum by 3:
Second Row:
\(449+523=972\)
\(972\div 3=\mathbf{324}\)
Second Row:
\(449+523=972\)
\(972\div 3=\mathbf{324}\)
Q. 19
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
18 25 4 ... 16 20 3 ... 6 15 ( )
A
15
B
18
C
5
✓ Correct
D
3
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the vertical sequence logic in the second column (25, 20, 15), where each number decreases by 5.
Q. 20
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
12 (56) 16 ... 16 ( ) 20
A
72
B
82
✓ Correct
C
92
D
62
E
52
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Logic: (A+B)×2=result (28×2=56). For 16,25 (corrected term): 41×2=82. [Key: 4(b)].
Q. 21
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
15 (90) 12 ... 19 ( ) 10
A
45
B
86
C
75
D
95
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The number inside the parentheses is found by multiplying the two outside numbers together and then dividing the product by 2:
First Row:
\(15\times 12=180\)
\(180\div 2=\mathbf{90}\)
Second Row:
\(19\times 10=190\)
\(190\div 2=\mathbf{95}\)
First Row:
\(15\times 12=180\)
\(180\div 2=\mathbf{90}\)
Second Row:
\(19\times 10=190\)
\(190\div 2=\mathbf{95}\)
Q. 22
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
148 (110) 368 ... 140 ( ) 396
A
136
B
231
C
334
D
128
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Pattern: Half the difference of outer numbers: (368−148)/2=110; (396−140)/2=128.
Q. 23
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
44 (44) 48 ... 55 ( ) 60
A
54
B
55
✓ Correct
C
60
D
65
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Follows the numerical relationship established in the first set as per the official answer key.
Q. 24
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
337 (410) 542 ... 443 ( ) 683
A
480
✓ Correct
B
618
C
517
D
524
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Arithmetic logic derived from the first set applied to the provided integers. [Key: 8(a)].
Q. 25
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
4 9 20 ... 5 11 24 8 17 ( )
A
35
B
45
C
36
✓ Correct
D
48
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Identified as the next logical step in the grid's numerical progression. [Key: 9(c)].
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Q. 1
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the rate of change of momentum of a body directly proportional to, according to Newton's Second Law of Motion?
A
The applied net external force
✓ Correct
B
The kinetic energy
C
The velocity of the body
D
The gravitational potential
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's Second Law states that F = dp/dt (the rate of change of momentum is equal to the net applied force).
Q. 2
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
A ball is projected horizontally from a height h with initial velocity v. At the same instant, an identical ball is dropped vertically from the same height. Neglecting air resistance, which ball hits the ground first?
A
Both balls hit the ground at exactly the same time
✓ Correct
B
The dropped ball hits first
C
The horizontally projected ball hits first
D
It depends on the mass of the balls
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Vertical and horizontal motions are completely independent; both balls experience the identical vertical acceleration g and initial vertical velocity zero, taking time t = sqrt(2h/g).
Q. 3
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the centripetal acceleration of an object of mass m moving at constant speed v in a circular path of radius r?
A
a = v² / r directed towards the center
✓ Correct
B
a = v / r² directed tangentially
C
a = v² * r directed outward
D
a = zero because speed is constant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Centripetal acceleration is a = v²/r directed radially inward toward the center of rotation.
Q. 4
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
In an isolated system, what quantities are conserved during a perfectly elastic collision between two particles?
A
Both total linear momentum and total kinetic energy
✓ Correct
B
Only total linear momentum, kinetic energy is lost
C
Only kinetic energy, momentum changes
D
Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In elastic collisions, both total momentum and total kinetic energy are strictly conserved.
Q. 5
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
What is the moment of inertia of a uniform solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rotating about its central longitudinal axis?
A
I = (1/2) M R²
✓ Correct
B
I = M R²
C
I = (2/5) M R²
D
I = (1/12) M R²
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
For a solid cylinder or disk of mass M and radius R about its cylindrical axis, I = 1/2 MR².
Q. 6
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
How much work is done by a centripetal force on a satellite orbiting Earth in a circular orbit?
A
Zero work, because the force is always perpendicular to the displacement vector
✓ Correct
B
Positive work equal to G*M*m/r
C
Negative work equal to kinetic energy
D
Infinite work over infinite revolutions
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Work W = F * d * cos(theta). For circular motion, theta = 90 deg, so cos(90) = 0, meaning no work is done.
Q. 7
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
What fundamental law of physics is represented by Bernoulli's Principle in fluid dynamics?
A
The Law of Conservation of Energy
✓ Correct
B
The Law of Conservation of Momentum
C
The Law of Conservation of Mass
D
The Second Law of Thermodynamics
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Bernoulli's equation (P + 1/2 rho*v² + rho*g*h = constant) is a direct formulation of conservation of mechanical energy for steady, incompressible, non-viscous fluid flow.
Q. 8
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: HARD
(1 Mark)
What happens to the terminal velocity of a small spherical raindrop falling through air if its radius is doubled (Stokes' Law)?
A
It increases by a factor of 4 (quadruples)
✓ Correct
B
It doubles
C
It remains unchanged
D
It increases by a factor of 8
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Terminal velocity v_t is proportional to r² (from equating weight proportional to r³ with viscous drag 6*pi*eta*r*v). Doubling radius increases v_t by 2² = 4.
Q. 9
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the theoretical maximum efficiency of a Carnot heat engine operating between a hot reservoir at T_H and a cold reservoir at T_C (in Kelvin)?
A
eta = 1 - (T_C / T_H)
✓ Correct
B
eta = 1 - (T_H / T_C)
C
eta = T_H / T_C
D
eta = (T_H - T_C) / T_C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Carnot efficiency is the absolute thermodynamic upper limit for any heat engine: eta = (T_H - T_C) / T_H = 1 - T_C/T_H.
Q. 10
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
In an adiabatic process involving an ideal gas, which thermodynamic variable remains zero?
A
Heat transfer (dQ = 0)
✓ Correct
B
Work done (dW = 0)
C
Change in internal energy (dU = 0)
D
Change in temperature (dT = 0)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An adiabatic process is thermally insulated from the surroundings such that no heat enters or leaves the system (Q = 0).
Q. 11
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, what happens to the total entropy of an isolated system during an irreversible spontaneous process?
A
It always increases (dS > 0)
✓ Correct
B
It decreases to zero
C
It remains strictly constant
D
It fluctuates unpredictably
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Second Law dictates that the entropy of an isolated system never decreases and strictly increases in all natural spontaneous irreversible processes.
Q. 12
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the time period T of a simple pendulum of length L in a gravitational field g for small angular displacements?
A
T = 2 * pi * sqrt(L / g)
✓ Correct
B
T = 2 * pi * sqrt(g / L)
C
T = pi * sqrt(L * g)
D
T = 2 * pi * (L / g)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The period of a simple pendulum is T = 2*pi*sqrt(L/g), independent of the mass of the bob.
Q. 13
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
When light travels from an optically denser medium (refractive index n1) into a rarer medium (n2) at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, what phenomenon occurs?
A
Total Internal Reflection
✓ Correct
B
Polarization by Scattering
C
Diffraction
D
Refraction towards the normal
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Total internal reflection occurs when light strikes a boundary with a rarer medium at an angle exceeding critical angle theta_c = arcsin(n2/n1).
Q. 14
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
In Young's Double-Slit Experiment, what is the fringe width (fringe spacing beta) on a screen at distance D for light of wavelength lambda with slit separation d?
A
beta = (lambda * D) / d
✓ Correct
B
beta = (lambda * d) / D
C
beta = (d * D) / lambda
D
beta = lambda / (d * D)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fringe spacing beta = lambda * D / d.
Q. 15
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is Coulomb's law for the electrostatic force between two point charges q1 and q2 separated by distance r in vacuum?
A
F = (1 / (4 * pi * epsilon_0)) * (q1 * q2 / r²)
✓ Correct
B
F = (1 / (4 * pi * epsilon_0)) * (q1 * q2 / r)
C
F = epsilon_0 * (q1 * q2 / r²)
D
F = (q1 + q2) / r²
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Coulomb's Law states force is directly proportional to the product of charges and inversely proportional to the square of distance.
Q. 16
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the equivalent capacitance when two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in parallel?
A
C_eq = C1 + C2
✓ Correct
B
C_eq = (C1 * C2) / (C1 + C2)
C
C_eq = 1/C1 + 1/C2
D
C_eq = sqrt(C1 * C2)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In parallel, capacitors add directly: C_eq = C1 + C2.
Q. 17
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
According to Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction and Lenz's Law, what is the induced electromotive force (EMF)?
A
EMF = - N * (dPhi / dt)
✓ Correct
B
EMF = + N * (dPhi / dt)
C
EMF = N * I * R
D
EMF = B * A * t
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Faraday-Lenz Law states induced EMF is proportional to the negative rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit.
Q. 18
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the energy E of a photon of light with frequency f according to Planck's Quantum Theory?
A
E = h * f
✓ Correct
B
E = h / f
C
E = f / h
D
E = 1/2 h * f²
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Planck's equation states that photon energy is quantized as E = hf, where h is Planck's constant (6.626 x 10^-34 J s).
Q. 19
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
In the Photoelectric Effect, what happens to the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons when the frequency of incident light is increased above the threshold frequency?
A
It increases linearly with incident frequency
✓ Correct
B
It remains constant while electron count increases
C
It decreases exponentially
D
It drops to zero
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Einstein's photoelectric equation (KE_max = hf - Phi) shows that kinetic energy increases linearly with photon frequency.
Q. 20
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the half-life t_1/2 of a radioactive isotope with decay constant lambda?
A
t_1/2 = ln(2) / lambda ≈ 0.693 / lambda
✓ Correct
B
t_1/2 = lambda / 0.693
C
t_1/2 = 1 / lambda²
D
t_1/2 = lambda * ln(2)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Half-life is related to the decay constant by t_1/2 = ln(2)/lambda = 0.693/lambda.
Q. 21
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: MEDIUM
(1 Mark)
What is the de Broglie wavelength lambda associated with a particle of mass m moving with velocity v?
A
lambda = h / (m * v) = h / p
✓ Correct
B
lambda = (m * v) / h
C
lambda = h * m * v
D
lambda = p² / (2 * m)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The de Broglie wave equation relates matter wavelength to momentum via lambda = h/p.
Q. 22
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the SI unit of Magnetic Flux?
A
Weber (Wb)
✓ Correct
B
Tesla (T)
C
Henry (H)
D
Gauss (G)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Magnetic flux is measured in Webers (Wb = T m²). Magnetic flux density is measured in Tesla (T).
Q. 23
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What is the SI unit of Self-Inductance and Mutual Inductance?
A
Henry (H)
✓ Correct
B
Farad (F)
C
Weber (Wb)
D
Siemens (S)
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Inductance is measured in Henries (1 H = 1 Wb/A = 1 V s/A).
Q. 24
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What type of semiconductor is formed when pure silicon (Group IV) is doped with a trivalent impurity like Boron or Gallium?
A
p-type semiconductor (holes are majority carriers)
✓ Correct
B
n-type semiconductor (electrons are majority carriers)
C
Intrinsic semiconductor
D
Superconductor
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Trivalent dopants have 3 valence electrons, creating electron vacancies (holes), producing p-type semiconductors.
Q. 25
Physics (Secondary & College Level)
Difficulty: EASY
(1 Mark)
What type of semiconductor is produced by doping Germanium or Silicon with a pentavalent impurity like Phosphorus or Arsenic?
A
n-type semiconductor (free electrons are majority carriers)
✓ Correct
B
p-type semiconductor
C
Insulator
D
Photodiode
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Pentavalent dopants donate an extra free conduction electron, producing n-type semiconductors.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
12 Questions in this set
Read the following passage: If the present trend of increase in population, urbanization and industrialization continues then the world in the year 2005 A.D. will be more crowded and more polluted than what it is at present. According to conservative estimates by 2005 A.D. population will increase to 6.5 billion to make the situation worst for the poor countries as 90 per cent of the increase in population will be in the poor countries. It will widen the gap between the rich and the poor countries. Due to tremendous increase in the population more area will be used for dwelling which may lead to reduction in the area under cultivation. So any increase in the agricultural production will not be due to increase in the area under cultivation but by advancement in the agricultural technology. With such a great pressure on land for habitation of people is bound to make environment unhygienic particularly in big cities as the civic authorities may not be able to cope with the problem. Increased demand for consumer goods will not only gear production of the existing industries but also demand setting up of more industries. This will lead to greater pollution than every before scarcity of water in urban centres and in the industrial town will be another problem of the future. If the present trend continues then hundreds of millions of people will have to sleep without having a meal.
Q. 1
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the year 2005 A.D. there will be need for
A
All the above.
B
Great efficiency of the civic authorities.
✓ Correct
C
More industries.
D
Increase in industrial production
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage notes that civic authorities may not be able to cope with the environmental and habitation pressures of 2005.
Q. 2
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the year 2005 A.D. demand for the consumer goods will
A
Decline
B
Increase
✓ Correct
C
Remain same
D
Decrease
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The text explicitly states: "Increased demand for consumer goods will... demand setting up of more industries."
Q. 3
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Any increase in agricultural production will be because of
A
Increase in the number of farmers
B
Improvement in the agricultural technology
✓ Correct
C
Increase in the area under cultivation
D
Government taking over all the land.
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage states any increase "will not be due to increase in the area... but by advancement in the agricultural technology."
Q. 4
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the year 2005 A.D. the agricultural production is likely to
A
Tremendously decrease
B
Increase
✓ Correct
C
Remain same
D
Decline
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While the area decreases, the passage suggests technology will be the driver for production to increase.
Q. 5
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
If the present trend continues then the year 2005 A.D.
A
The world will be more polluted
B
Billions of people will go without meals.
C
The world will be more crowded
D
All the above are correct
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage highlights increased pollution, crowding, and hundreds of millions sleeping without a meal.
Q. 6
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
There will be scarcity of water in:
A
Industrial towns
B
Urban centres
C
Seas
D
Both a and b
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The text notes scarcity of water in "urban centres and in the industrial town" as a future problem.
Q. 7
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the year 2005 A.D. the gap between the rich and the poor countries will
A
Increase
✓ Correct
B
Decrease
C
Remain same
D
Disappear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage explicitly states the population trend "will widen the gap between the rich and the poor countries."
Q. 8
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The poor countries will contribute to the increase of population to the extent of
A
100 per cent
B
10 per cent
C
30 per cent
D
90 per cent
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The text specifies that "90 per cent of the increase in population will be in the poor countries."
Q. 9
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
There will be the greatest increase in population figure in:
A
The poor countries
✓ Correct
B
China
C
India
D
Russia
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
As stated in the text, 90% of the population increase is attributed to poor countries.
Q. 10
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The world population as it would be 2005 A.D. has been estimated by a method which may be called on the whole as:
A
Strict
B
Liberal
C
Scientific
D
Conservative
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage refers to the figures as being derived from "conservative estimates."
Q. 11
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The world population in 2005 A.D. will be
A
65 billion
B
65 million
C
6.5 million
D
6.5 billion
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage explicitly states: "According to conservative estimates by 2005 A.D. population will increase to 6.5 billion to make the situation worst for the poor countries..."
Q. 12
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the year 2005 A.D. the world will be more
A
Rich
B
Crowded
C
Populated
D
Both (b) and (c)
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The opening sentence states the world will be "more crowded" and "more polluted/populated" than at present.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
10 Questions in this set
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE: Dancing in India has a long history of over 2,000 year. The themes of dance are mainly derived from legends, classical literature and mythology. Patronage of temples, kings and the nobles has helped in the preservation of this art. Indian dances can be conveniently classified as the folk and the classical. The classical forms of dances are based on ancient dance discipline and follow rigid rules for presentation both in the matter of style and dress. Bharata Natyam, Kathak, Kathakali, Kuchipudi, Luddi, Odissi and Manipuri and among the more popular dances in northern India. Kathak is the main classical dance while Bhangra is a folk dance of Punjab. Kathak dance has been vitalized by the influence of the Mughals. Odissi is basically a temple dance once practised in Orissa but now it is quite popular on the stage in other parts of the country. Kuchipudi is the dance drama from Andhra Pradesh. Most of the themes of Kuchipudi are based on the epics like the Mahabharata and the Ramayana. Kathakali has its origin in Kerala, While Bharata Natyam has roots in Tamil Nadu.
Q. 13
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the past dances received patronage of
A
The ruler
B
The noble
C
Temple
D
All the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage notes patronage from "temples, kings and the nobles" helped preserve the art.
Q. 14
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Kathak dance has been influenced by
A
The Mongals
B
The Pallavas
C
The Cholas
D
The Mughals
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The text states: "Kathak dance has been vitalized by the influence of the Mughals."
Q. 15
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following dance belongs to Northern India?
A
Kathak
✓ Correct
B
Bharata Natyam
C
Kathakali
D
Odissi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage lists Kathak among the "more popular dances in northern India."
Q. 16
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The themes of the Kuchipudi are based on
A
The Shukuntala
B
The Ramayana
C
The Mhabharta
D
Both (b) and (c).
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The text confirms themes are "based on the epics like the Mahabharata and the Ramayana."
Q. 17
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The Bharata Natyam has its origin in
A
Andhra Pradesh
B
Bharat
C
Tamil Nadu
✓ Correct
D
Nagaland
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage explicitly states that "Bharata Natyam has roots in Tamil Nadu."
Q. 18
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following dances originated in Punjab?
A
Kathak
B
Manipuri
C
Luddi
✓ Correct
D
Gharba
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The text describes Luddi as a popular dance in northern India (Punjab/Northern region context).
Q. 19
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following has its origin in Punjab?
A
Bhangra
✓ Correct
B
Kathak
C
Bharata Natyam
D
Kuchipudi.
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage identifies Bhangra as a "folk dance of Punjab."
Q. 20
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Bhangra is a folk dance of
A
Sindh
B
Punjab
✓ Correct
C
Delhi
D
Baluchistan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
As per the text, Bhangra is the traditional folk dance of the Punjab region.
Q. 21
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
From where the Indian dances derive their themes?
A
From legends
B
From classical literature
C
From mythology
D
All the above.
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The text notes themes are "mainly derived from legends, classical literature and mythology."
Q. 22
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Dances in India have existed for
A
5000 years
B
200 years
C
1000 years
D
Over 2005 years
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The passage opens by stating dancing in India has a "history of over 2,000 year."
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
1 Question in this set
INTERPRETATION TESTS: One method of obtaining 'artificial gravity' in a space station is to have the station rotating about axis AA' as it revolves around the Earth. The inhabitants of the space station would experience a sensation of gravity that is directed outward from the axis of rotation.
Q. 23
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Inhabitants of the space station would call which direction ‘down’?
A
Direction 1
B
Direction 2
C
Direction 3
D
Direction 4
✓ Correct
E
Any of the four
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In a rotating station, centrifugal force acts outward from the axis, creating an artificial gravity "down" toward the hull.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
2 Questions in this set
In the following questions you are asked to make inferences from the data which are given. Direction: Questions 24 to 27 are based solely on the graph below which shows oil imports by Cosmic International during 1997-2000 in millions of tonnes.
Q. 24
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Assume... 2000 and subsequent years oil imports were 10% more than average... imports in 2001 most nearly?
A
114
B
109
C
100
D
105
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The nearest answer is 105 as per calculations.
Q. 25
Intelligence Tests
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The percentage decrease in oil imports in 1999 when compared with oil imports in 1997 was nearest to:
A
26.5
B
23.6
✓ Correct
C
24.6
D
25.6
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the quantitative data provided in the Cosmic International graph.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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