📖 Tier 1: Prepare & Study Guide
✓ 100% Solved with Rationales
NURSE (BS-16) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
Direct Departmental Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
9144 Total
Questions
~13716 mins Read
Time
4 Subject Areas
🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy
✓ 100% Comprehensive Guide
📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide
Candidate Selection Architecture for NURSE (BS-16)
📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint
The competitive recruitment screening for NURSE (BS-16) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Nursing, English Language Comprehension, General Knowledge, and Pakistan Affairs. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.
| Examination Subject / Question Type | Target Marks | Weightage | Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark |
|---|---|---|---|
| Nursing | 50 MCQs | 50% | Patient care and management, Pharmacology and medication administration, Infection control and prevention, Emergency response and first aid |
| English Language Comprehension | 20 MCQs | 20% | Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension |
| General Knowledge | 15 MCQs | 15% | World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts |
| Pakistan Affairs | 15 MCQs | 15% | Constitutional history, Pakistan movement, national affairs, economy |
💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios
Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:
Scenario 1: Authentic Practical Scenario 1 for Nurse
Operational Dilemma: A patient reports severe abdominal pain. What steps should the nurse take?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Assess the patient's vital signs, document the complaint, and notify the doctor immediately. Administer pain relief as per protocol.
Standard: Adherence to emergency response protocols
Scenario 2: Authentic Practical Scenario 2 for Nurse
Operational Dilemma: A patient requires a blood transfusion. How should the nurse proceed?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Prepare the patient, obtain informed consent, administer the transfusion, and monitor the patient for adverse reactions.
Standard: Proper administration and monitoring of blood transfusions
Scenario 3: Authentic Practical Scenario 3 for Nurse
Operational Dilemma: A patient needs to be discharged. What steps should the nurse follow?
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Review the patient's medical records, provide discharge instructions, and ensure the patient understands the follow-up care.
Standard: Discharge planning and patient education
🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview
Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.
Q1: What are your key responsibilities as a Nurse?
Model Response: My primary responsibilities include taking vital signs, administering medications, and providing patient care. I also assist in the diagnosis and treatment processes.
Q2: How do you ensure patient confidentiality?
Model Response: I maintain strict confidentiality by securely storing patient records and only discussing patient information with authorized personnel.
Q3: Describe a time when you had to handle a difficult patient situation.
Model Response: During a recent incident, a patient was agitated due to pain. I remained calm, reassured them, and provided additional support until the doctor arrived.
Q4: What steps do you take to prevent infections in the dispensary?
Model Response: I follow strict infection control protocols, including hand hygiene, proper disposal of sharps, and regular cleaning of equipment and surfaces.
📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap
Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:
- Days 1-5: Nursing Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
- Days 6-8: English Language Comprehension Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
- Days 9-11: General Knowledge & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
- Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
- Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.
✅ 5. Examination Day Protocol & Merit Optimization Strategy
Candidates appearing for the NURSE (BS-16) (BS-16) screening examination should strictly observe official test center protocols: carry the original CNIC, printed Roll Number Slip, and black or blue ballpoint pens for OMR bubble shading. Allocate the first 45 minutes to high-confidence questions in Nursing and English Language Comprehension before attempting multi-step analytical items. Maintain a minimum 80% accuracy rate across attempted items to absorb any negative marking deductions and secure a top-decile merit ranking for the Departmental Selection Committee interview.
Q. 1
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the single most effective and fundamental nursing measure to prevent healthcare-associated infections (nosocomial infections)?
A
Wearing sterile gloves at all times
B
Proper hand hygiene (handwashing / alcohol rub) before and after patient contact
✓ Correct
C
Routine prophylactic antibiotic administration
D
Using disposable bedsheets
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hand hygiene performed in accordance with the WHO '5 Moments for Hand Hygiene' is the single most proven intervention for breaking the chain of infection in clinical settings.
Q. 2
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which position is considered most appropriate for a patient experiencing acute severe dyspnea or orthopnea?
A
Trendelenburg position
B
High Fowler's position (sitting upright at 60-90 degrees)
✓ Correct
C
Prone position
D
Dorsal recumbent position
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
High Fowler's position allows gravity to lower the diaphragm, maximizing thoracic expansion and decreasing venous return to the heart to ease respiratory effort.
Q. 3
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In staging pressure ulcers (bedsores), an area of intact skin with non-blanchable erythema over a bony prominence corresponds to:
A
Stage I
✓ Correct
B
Stage II
C
Stage III
D
Stage IV
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Stage I pressure injury is defined by intact skin with localized, non-blanchable erythema. Stage II involves partial-thickness loss of dermis, Stage III full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV exposed bone/muscle.
Q. 4
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the standard minimum temperature and holding time required for moist-heat sterilization inside an autoclave operating at 15 psi pressure?
A
100°C for 60 minutes
B
121°C for 15-20 minutes
✓ Correct
C
160°C for 2 hours
D
80°C for 30 minutes
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autoclaving utilizes saturated pressurized steam at 121°C (250°F) under 15 psi (103 kPa) for at least 15-20 minutes to kill all vegetative microorganisms and bacterial endospores.
Q. 5
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Before feeding a patient through an established nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the most reliable bedside nursing method to verify correct tube placement?
A
Aspirating gastric contents and measuring pH (< 5.5 on pH paper)
✓ Correct
B
Auscultating an air bolus over the epigastrium
C
Placing the distal tube end in a glass of water
D
Checking if the patient can speak
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Aspirating gastric fluid and testing for acidic pH (<5.5) is the most reliable bedside method; radiographic confirmation is the absolute gold standard for initial placement.
Q. 6
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
To prevent urinary tract infections in a patient with an indwelling Foley catheter, the drainage bag should always be positioned:
A
At the level of the patient's heart
B
Below the level of the patient's bladder
✓ Correct
C
Resting directly on the floor
D
Hanging from the top bed rail
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Keeping the drainage bag below the level of the bladder prevents retrograde backflow of contaminated urine into the bladder, which is the primary cause of CAUTI.
Q. 7
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
When administering an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult, what is the correct angle of needle insertion into the muscle?
A
15 degrees
B
45 degrees
C
90 degrees
✓ Correct
D
25 degrees
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Intramuscular injections are administered at a 90-degree angle to penetrate the subcutaneous tissue and deposit medication deeply into the vascular muscle mass.
Q. 8
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following describes the correct technique for sterile donning of gloves?
A
Touching the outside surface of the glove with bare hands
B
Touching only the folded inner cuff of the first glove with the bare hand
✓ Correct
C
Washing hands with cold water and putting gloves on wet hands
D
Blowing into the glove to open fingers
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
When donning sterile gloves, the un-gloved hand touches only the turned-down inner cuff (which will be in contact with the skin), preserving the outer glove sterility.
Q. 9
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following is an example of an airborne isolation precaution requiring an N95 respirator mask and negative-pressure isolation room?
A
Clostridioides difficile colitis
B
Open active pulmonary tuberculosis
✓ Correct
C
Streptococcal pharyngitis
D
Wound infection with MRSA
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via droplet nuclei (<5 um) that remain suspended in air; healthcare workers must wear fit-tested N95 respirators.
Q. 10
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The normal oral body temperature range for an adult in degrees Celsius is approximately:
A
35.0°C - 35.5°C
B
36.5°C - 37.5°C
✓ Correct
C
38.0°C - 38.5°C
D
39.0°C - 39.5°C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Normal adult body temperature typically fluctuates between 36.5°C and 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F).
Q. 11
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A patient with a water-seal chest drainage system has continuous vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this finding indicate to the nurse?
A
Normal expected function during deep inspiration
B
An air leak in the chest tube system or patient's pleural space
✓ Correct
C
The lung has fully expanded
D
The suction pressure is too low
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Intermittent tidaling/bubbling with coughing is normal, but continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates a leak in the drainage apparatus or persistent pneumothorax.
Q. 12
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
During a blood transfusion, the patient complains of chills, back pain, fever, and shortness of breath 10 minutes into the infusion. What is the immediate priority nursing action?
A
Slow the transfusion rate and check vital signs
B
Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the IV line open with normal saline
✓ Correct
C
Administer oral paracetamol and continue
D
Call the blood bank to check crossmatch
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
At the first sign of an acute hemolytic or severe transfusion reaction, the transfusion must be stopped immediately to minimize foreign antigen exposure while maintaining IV access with fresh tubing and 0.9% saline.
Q. 13
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which clinical sign elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the earlobe produces facial twitching, indicating hypocalcemia in a post-thyroidectomy patient?
A
Trousseau sign
B
Chvostek sign
✓ Correct
C
Romberg sign
D
Homan sign
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chvostek's sign is unprovoked or percussion-induced twitching of the circumoral and facial muscles caused by neuromuscular hyperexcitability from hypocalcemia.
Q. 14
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) evaluates neurological responsiveness across which three behavioral domains?
A
Pupillary response, deep tendon reflexes, cranial nerves
B
Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response
✓ Correct
C
Blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate
D
Orientation, memory, abstract thinking
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses Eye Opening (1-4), Verbal Response (1-5), and Motor Response (1-6) for a score ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully alert).
Q. 15
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left calf, which nursing intervention is STRICTLY contraindicated?
A
Bed rest with leg elevation
B
Massaging or rubbing the affected calf muscle
✓ Correct
C
Monitoring coagulation parameters
D
Administering prescribed anticoagulation
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Vigorously massaging or rubbing the affected extremity can dislodge the thrombus, precipitating potentially fatal pulmonary embolism.
Q. 16
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the primary post-operative nursing rationale for encouraging early ambulation and deep breathing exercises following major abdominal surgery?
A
To increase urinary output
B
To prevent atelectasis, pneumonia, and deep vein thrombosis
✓ Correct
C
To decrease wound healing time
D
To replace intravenous fluids
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Early ambulation promotes venous return to prevent DVT and stimulates diaphragmatic movement to reverse alveolar collapse (atelectasis) and prevent hypostatic pneumonia.
Q. 17
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following is the most characteristic early clinical indicator of developing hypovolemic shock?
A
Severe bradycardia
B
Tachycardia and mild tachypnea with cool, clammy skin
✓ Correct
C
Profound hypertension
D
Flushed warm extremities
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Compensatory tachycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction (cool, clammy skin) occur early in hypovolemia as sympathetic activation attempts to maintain cardiac output before blood pressure falls.
Q. 18
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
For an unconscious patient with a tracheostomy, what is the maximum recommended duration for a single endotracheal suctioning pass to prevent severe hypoxia?
A
5 to 10 seconds
B
10 to 15 seconds
✓ Correct
C
25 to 30 seconds
D
45 seconds
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Suction passes should not exceed 10 to 15 seconds to prevent suction-induced hypoxia, bradycardia, and mucosal trauma; hyperoxygenation before and after is essential.
Q. 19
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In a diabetic patient who becomes confused, diaphoresis, shaky, and tachycardia with a capillary blood glucose of 45 mg/dL, what is the immediate nursing intervention if conscious?
A
Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneous
B
Administer 15-20 grams of fast-acting oral carbohydrates (e.g., fruit juice or glucose tablets)
✓ Correct
C
Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
D
Encourage the patient to sleep
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The 'Rule of 15' dictates giving 15-20 g of simple fast-acting carbohydrate (half cup fruit juice or 3-4 glucose tablets) for mild-to-moderate hypoglycemia, rechecking glucose after 15 minutes.
Q. 20
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which clinical observation is the earliest and most sensitive sign of increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A
Fixed, dilated pupils
B
Change in the level of consciousness (restlessness, lethargy, confusion)
✓ Correct
C
Cushing's triad (bradycardia, hypertension, irregular breathing)
D
Decerebrate posturing
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Altered level of consciousness is the most sensitive early indicator of rising ICP; pupillary changes and Cushing's triad are late signs indicating imminent brainstem herniation.
Q. 21
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
An infant at 1 minute of life has a heart rate of 110 bpm, good vigorous cry, active motion of all extremities, grimaces to suctioning, but has pink body with blue extremities (acrocyanosis). What is the APGAR score?
A
7
B
8
C
9
✓ Correct
D
10
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heart rate >100 (2), Good cry/respiration (2), Active motion/muscle tone (2), Grimace/reflex (2), Acrocyanosis/color (1) = Total APGAR score of 9.
Q. 22
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The first stage of labor is defined as extending from the onset of true labor contractions until:
A
Rupture of amniotic membranes
B
Complete cervical dilation (10 cm) and full effacement
✓ Correct
C
Crowning of the fetal head
D
Delivery of the infant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The first stage of labor begins with regular uterine contractions and concludes with complete cervical dilatation (10 cm). The second stage is delivery of the infant, and the third stage is delivery of the placenta.
Q. 23
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
When caring for a newborn receiving phototherapy for physiological neonatal jaundice, which essential nursing precautions must be maintained?
A
Keep the baby fully clothed in swaddle
B
Cover the infant's eyes with opaque eye patches and shield the genitalia, while monitoring hydration
✓ Correct
C
Withhold all breast milk feedings during phototherapy
D
Apply topical baby oil over the skin
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Eye shields protect retinas from photochemical damage; genitalia are covered, and frequent breastfeeding is promoted to prevent dehydration and accelerate bilirubin excretion.
Q. 24
Nursing
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
At what age should exclusive breastfeeding ideally be supplemented with timely, nutritionally adequate complementary feeding (weaning)?
A
At 2 months
B
At 4 months
C
At 6 months (180 days)
✓ Correct
D
At 12 months
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
WHO and UNICEF recommend exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of life, followed by introduction of safe and nutritionally adequate complementary foods while continuing breastfeeding up to 2 years.
Q. 25
Nursing
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In a post-term pregnant patient receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion for labor augmentation, what pattern of uterine contractions signifies hyperstimulation requiring immediate stoppage of oxytocin?
A
Contractions occurring every 2 to 3 minutes lasting 45 seconds
B
Contractions occurring more frequently than every 2 minutes or lasting longer than 90 seconds
✓ Correct
C
Mild irregular contractions once every 10 minutes
D
Contractions accompanied by back pain
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Uterine tachysystole (>5 contractions in 10 minutes or duration >90 seconds) compromises uteroplacental perfusion, causing fetal hypoxia; oxytocin must be discontinued immediately.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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25 Questions in this set
Choose the correct answer for the following Pakistan Studies questions:
Q. 1
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which province of Pakistan is called Bab-ul-Islam?
A
Punjab
B
Sindh
✓ Correct
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Balochistan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sindh is known as the "Gateway of Islam" because it was the first region conquered by Muslims.
Q. 2
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim during the ____ period.
A
Umayyads
✓ Correct
B
Abbasids
C
Tulun
D
Idrisids
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The conquest occurred during the reign of the Umayyad Caliph Al-Walid I.
Q. 3
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim was the nephew of
A
Sulayman bin Abdul Malik
B
Abdul Malik bin Marwan
C
Walid bin Abdul Malik
D
Hajjaj bin Yousaf
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the nephew and son-in-law of Hajjaj, the governor of Iraq.
Q. 4
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim in ____ A.D.
A
712
✓ Correct
B
713
C
714
D
715
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The decisive campaign against Raja Dahir culminated in the victory of 712 AD.
Q. 5
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was the ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Dehli
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the last Hindu king of the Brahman dynasty in Sindh.
Q. 6
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was defeated by
A
Yazid bin Mulhib
B
Muhammad bin Qasim
✓ Correct
C
Tariq bin Ziyad
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The young Arab general defeated Dahir at the Battle of Aror.
Q. 7
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Debul and Alor are the names of
A
Places of Ancient Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Old Gardens of Sindh
C
Old Games of Sindh
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Debul was a seaport and Alor (Aror) was the capital of Sindh.
Q. 8
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Chach Nama is the ancient history of
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Rawalpindi
D
Sindh
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This historical work details the Chach Dynasty and the Arab conquest of Sindh.
Q. 9
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Makli Hill is the name of ____ which is situated in province of Sindh.
A
Graveyard
✓ Correct
B
Playground
C
Ancient building
D
Local dance
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Makli is one of the largest necropolises (cemeteries) in the world.
Q. 10
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Chach?
A
Father of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
B
Son of Raja Dahir
C
Son in law of Dahir
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chach of Aror was the founder of the Brahman dynasty and Dahir's father.
Q. 11
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Sisakar?
A
Wazir of Hajjaj bin Yousaf
B
Wazir of Muhammad bin Qasim
C
Wazir of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the Prime Minister of Raja Dahir who later joined the Muslim side.
Q. 12
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mohenjodaro is located in ____
A
Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Baluchistan
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Punjab
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This Indus Valley Civilization site is located in the Larkana District of Sindh.
Q. 13
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Al-Arus a huge balista used by Muhammad bin Qasim during the conquest of ____
A
Lahore
B
Depalpur
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Peshawar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Al-Arus was a massive catapult used to breach the walls of Debul in Sindh.
Q. 14
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim tortured to death in a prison in Iraq during the caliphate of ____
A
Sulaiman
✓ Correct
B
Walid
C
Yazid
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the death of Walid I and Hajjaj, Caliph Sulaiman bin Abdul Malik imprisoned him.
Q. 15
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 133 A.H/750 A.D. the Abbasids overthrew the ____
A
Safvids
B
Mughals
C
Umayyads
✓ Correct
D
Meds
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Abbasid Revolution ended the rule of the Umayyad dynasty.
Q. 16
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The Abbasids Governor came to Sindh in 140 A.H./757 A.D.
A
Hisham
B
Walid
C
Musa
✓ Correct
D
Yasir
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Musa bin Ka'b al-Tamimi was the first Abbasid governor of Sindh.
Q. 17
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Waihind (Modern Hund in District Attock) was the capital of ____
A
Umayyads
B
Abbassids
C
Mughals
D
Hindu Shahis
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hund served as the second capital of the Hindu Shahi kingdom.
Q. 18
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 367 A.H/777 A.D, Subuktigin, a Turkish slave become the master of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Depalpur
D
Ghazni
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sebuktigin founded the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan.
Q. 19
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Subuktigin died in August 997 A.D and was... succeeded by his brilliant and ambitious son, ____
A
Ahmad
B
Mahmood
✓ Correct
C
Ayaz
D
Arsalan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni succeeded his father and expanded the empire into India.
Q. 20
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood’s first important battle was fought against ____ near Peshawar in 8 Muharram 392 A.H 25 November 1001 A.D.
A
Jaipal
✓ Correct
B
Sukhpal
C
Anandpal
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud defeated the Shahi King Jaipal at the Battle of Peshawar.
Q. 21
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abu-al-Fath Daud was the Ismaili ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
✓ Correct
C
Sindh
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud of Ghazni conquered Multan from the Ismaili ruler Abul Fath Daud.
Q. 22
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood set out on the expedition to Somnath on 17 October ____
A
1023 A.D
B
1024 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1025 A.D
D
1026 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The expedition to the famous temple took place between 1024 and 1025.
Q. 23
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood breathed his last sigh on 30 April ____
A
1024 A.D.
B
1026 A.D.
C
1028 A.D.
D
1030 A.D.
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud passed away in Ghazni in the year 1030.
Q. 24
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D the first battle of Traain was fought between Muhammad Ghauri and Rajputs... Muhammad Ghauri defeated in this battle.
A
1189
B
1190
C
1191
✓ Correct
D
1192
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghauri in the first engagement at Tarain.
Q. 25
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D. the second battle of Train was fought and Rajputs defeated in this battle.
A
1190
B
1191
C
1192
✓ Correct
D
1193
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ghauri returned a year later and decisively defeated the Rajput confederacy.
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