📖 Tier 1: Prepare & Study Guide
✓ 100% Solved with Rationales
HEAD BUTLER (BS-16) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
NTS Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank
8794 Total
Questions
~13191 mins Read
Time
4 Subject Areas
🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy
✓ 100% Comprehensive Guide
📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass
Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide
Candidate Selection Architecture for HEAD BUTLER (BS-16)
📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint
The competitive recruitment screening for HEAD BUTLER (BS-16) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Hospital Administration, English Language Comprehension, General Knowledge, and Pakistan Affairs. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.
| Examination Subject / Question Type | Target Marks | Weightage | Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark |
|---|---|---|---|
| Hospital Administration | 50 MCQs | 50% | Hospital organizational structure and hierarchy, Patient care and service standards, Infection control and hygiene protocols |
| English Language Comprehension | 20 MCQs | 20% | Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension |
| General Knowledge | 15 MCQs | 15% | World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts |
| Pakistan Affairs | 15 MCQs | 15% | Constitutional history, Pakistan movement, national affairs, economy |
💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios
Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:
Scenario 1: Authentic Practical Scenario 1 for Head Butler
Operational Dilemma: A patient room has been found to have a minor contamination issue. Describe how you would address this situation while ensuring minimal disruption to patient care.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Isolate the affected area, notify the infection control team, and implement immediate cleaning and disinfection procedures. Ensure that the patient is reassured and that the room is restored to a safe condition as quickly as possible.
Standard: Adherence to infection control protocols and patient safety guidelines.
Scenario 2: Authentic Practical Scenario 2 for Head Butler
Operational Dilemma: A new cleaning product has been introduced. Explain how you would train your team to use it effectively and safely.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Provide training sessions, demonstrate correct usage, and ensure that all team members understand the product’s benefits and potential risks. Conduct follow-up checks to ensure compliance.
Standard: Effective training methods and adherence to safety guidelines.
Scenario 3: Authentic Practical Scenario 3 for Head Butler
Operational Dilemma: A sudden increase in patient numbers requires additional cleaning resources. Describe how you would manage this situation.
💡 Model Answer & Protocol: Prioritize critical areas, delegate tasks efficiently, and request additional support if necessary. Maintain clear communication with all involved parties to ensure smooth operations.
Standard: Efficient resource management and effective communication.
🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview
Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.
Q1: How do you ensure that all areas of the hospital are cleaned according to infection control protocols?
Model Response: I ensure that all areas are cleaned regularly and follow strict protocols such as using appropriate disinfectants and wearing protective gear. I also conduct regular inspections and provide training to my team.
Q2: Can you describe a time when you had to handle a difficult situation involving patient care?
Model Response: During a recent incident, a patient was upset about the cleanliness of their room. I immediately addressed their concerns, isolated the area, and ensured that it was thoroughly cleaned. I also provided additional support to the patient to ensure their comfort.
Q3: What steps do you take to maintain accurate records of cleaning activities?
Model Response: I maintain detailed logs and use checklists to ensure that all tasks are completed accurately. Regular audits are conducted to verify the accuracy of these records.
Q4: How do you motivate and lead your team effectively?
Model Response: I lead by example, set clear expectations, and provide regular feedback. I also encourage open communication and recognize the efforts of my team members to foster a positive and motivated work environment.
📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap
Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:
- Days 1-5: Hospital Administration Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
- Days 6-8: English Language Comprehension Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
- Days 9-11: General Knowledge & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
- Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
- Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.
✅ 5. Examination Day Protocol & Merit Optimization Strategy
Candidates appearing for the HEAD BUTLER (BS-16) (BS-16) screening examination should strictly observe official test center protocols: carry the original CNIC, printed Roll Number Slip, and black or blue ballpoint pens for OMR bubble shading. Allocate the first 45 minutes to high-confidence questions in Hospital Administration and English Language Comprehension before attempting multi-step analytical items. Maintain a minimum 80% accuracy rate across attempted items to absorb any negative marking deductions and secure a top-decile merit ranking for the Departmental Selection Committee interview.
Q. 1
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What does 'Bed Occupancy Rate' (BOR) measure in hospital operational performance?
A
The percentage of available hospital beds occupied by inpatients over a given period: (Total Inpatient Days / Available Bed Days) * 100
✓ Correct
B
The number of empty hospital beds in the emergency department
C
The physical dimensions of hospital bed frames in centimeters
D
The total number of patients treated in the outpatient clinic
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BOR is a fundamental hospital utilization metric. Ideal operational BOR ranges between 80-85% to maintain flexibility for acute emergency admissions.
Q. 2
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What does the 'Average Length of Stay' (ALOS) indicate and how is it calculated?
A
Total Inpatient Days of Care / Total Number of Discharges and Deaths during a specified period
✓ Correct
B
The time spent waiting in the outpatient pharmacy queue
C
The duration of a surgeon's pre-operative scrub
D
The total hours an ambulance spends parked outside emergency
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
ALOS measures clinical efficiency and inpatient bed turnover. Declining ALOS without elevated readmission rates reflects efficient clinical pathway management.
Q. 3
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is 'Bed Turnover Interval' (BTI) in hospital inpatient resource planning?
A
The average time (in days or hours) that a bed remains vacant between the discharge of one patient and the admission of the next
✓ Correct
B
The speed at which nursing staff change bed linens
C
The mechanical rotation of orthopedic traction beds
D
The total number of beds transferred between hospital wards
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BTI = (Available Bed Days - Inpatient Days) / Discharges. A negative BTI indicates bed shortage/overcrowding, while a large BTI indicates underutilized capacity.
Q. 4
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In emergency department triage, what is the 'Manchester Triage System' (MTS) / Emergency Severity Index (ESI)?
A
A standardized clinical algorithm categorizing emergency patients into 5 acuity tiers (1-Immediate / Resuscitation, 2-Very Urgent / Emergent, 3-Urgent, 4-Standard / Less Urgent, 5-Non-Urgent)
✓ Correct
B
A billing software that generates patient invoices based on insurance coverage
C
A scheduling calendar for hospital laundry staff
D
A dietary planning menu for diabetic inpatients
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
ESI / MTS assigns triage acuity based on clinical severity and projected resource needs (Tier 1 = immediate life threat requiring zero delay, down to Tier 5 = non-urgent).
Q. 5
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What operational strategy is termed 'Fast-Tracking' in hospital emergency department workflow design?
A
A dedicated care stream for low-acuity, ambulatory patients (ESI Level 4 and 5) that reduces overall ED crowding and minimizes length of stay for minor conditions
✓ Correct
B
Allowing VIP patients to bypass all medical examinations
C
Discharging ICU patients before surgery is completed
D
Speeding up hospital elevators during night shifts
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fast-track units treat simple lacerations, minor fractures, and non-severe infections in parallel, preventing minor cases from competing with high-acuity resuscitation bays.
Q. 6
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is the purpose of a 'Hospital Incident Command System' (HICS) during mass casualty incidents or external disasters?
A
A standardized, all-hazard organizational structure providing command, operational control, logistics, planning, and financial management during hospital crises
✓ Correct
B
A legal committee that files lawsuits against utility companies
C
An architectural plan for constructing new hospital wings
D
A software that tracks doctor attendance at medical conferences
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
HICS establishes defined roles (Incident Commander, Operations, Logistics, Planning, Finance) to coordinate hospital surge capacity and disaster response.
Q. 7
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the operational function of a Hospital 'Central Sterile Services Department' (CSSD)?
A
Decontamination, cleaning, inspection, packaging, sterilization, and distribution of reusable surgical instruments and medical devices under strict aseptic controls
✓ Correct
B
Managing hospital financial payroll accounts
C
Conducting medical student anatomy lectures
D
Preparing dietary meals for hospital cafeterias
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
CSSD ensures surgical instrument sterility via steam autoclaving, ethylene oxide, or plasma sterilization, preventing surgical site infections (SSIs).
Q. 8
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In outpatient clinic queue management, what is the 'Block Appointment System' compared to individual staggered appointments?
A
A group of patients is scheduled to arrive at the beginning of a specific time block (e.g. 5 patients at 9:00 AM) to absorb physician downtime from no-shows
✓ Correct
B
Patients are seen strictly in alphabetical order of their last names
C
Only one patient is admitted per calendar day
D
Appointments are allocated via a public lottery system
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Block scheduling schedules multiple patients per time slot, protecting physician utilization against high patient no-show rates while maintaining clinic throughput.
Q. 9
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What does 'Hospital Discharge Planning' primarily aim to accomplish?
A
Coordinating clinical, pharmaceutical, rehabilitative, and social care transitions prior to patient departure to prevent unnecessary 30-day hospital readmissions
✓ Correct
B
Collecting all outstanding hospital fees in cash at the bedside
C
Confiscating patient medical charts before they exit the building
D
Transferring all discharged patients to nursing hostels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Proactive discharge planning begins at admission, ensuring medication reconciliation, home care coordination, and follow-up scheduling to lower readmission risk.
Q. 10
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In operating room (OR) management, what is 'Turnaround Time' (TAT) between surgical cases?
A
The elapsed time from one patient wheeling out of the operating room ('Wheels Out') to the next patient wheeling into the room ('Wheels In')
✓ Correct
B
The total duration of the surgical incision and closure
C
The time required for an anesthesiologist to inject local anesthetic
D
The time taken to wash surgical gowns in the hospital laundry
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
OR Turnaround Time includes room cleaning, disinfection, surgical instrument tray setup, and anesthesia preparation; minimizing TAT optimizes expensive OR block utilization.
Q. 11
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] What does 'Bed Occupancy Rate' (BOR) measure in hospital operational performance?
A
The percentage of available hospital beds occupied by inpatients over a given period: (Total Inpatient Days / Available Bed Days) * 100
✓ Correct
B
The number of empty hospital beds in the emergency department
C
The physical dimensions of hospital bed frames in centimeters
D
The total number of patients treated in the outpatient clinic
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BOR is a fundamental hospital utilization metric. Ideal operational BOR ranges between 80-85% to maintain flexibility for acute emergency admissions.
Q. 12
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] What does the 'Average Length of Stay' (ALOS) indicate and how is it calculated?
A
Total Inpatient Days of Care / Total Number of Discharges and Deaths during a specified period
✓ Correct
B
The time spent waiting in the outpatient pharmacy queue
C
The duration of a surgeon's pre-operative scrub
D
The total hours an ambulance spends parked outside emergency
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
ALOS measures clinical efficiency and inpatient bed turnover. Declining ALOS without elevated readmission rates reflects efficient clinical pathway management.
Q. 13
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] What is 'Bed Turnover Interval' (BTI) in hospital inpatient resource planning?
A
The average time (in days or hours) that a bed remains vacant between the discharge of one patient and the admission of the next
✓ Correct
B
The speed at which nursing staff change bed linens
C
The mechanical rotation of orthopedic traction beds
D
The total number of beds transferred between hospital wards
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BTI = (Available Bed Days - Inpatient Days) / Discharges. A negative BTI indicates bed shortage/overcrowding, while a large BTI indicates underutilized capacity.
Q. 14
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] In emergency department triage, what is the 'Manchester Triage System' (MTS) / Emergency Severity Index (ESI)?
A
A standardized clinical algorithm categorizing emergency patients into 5 acuity tiers (1-Immediate / Resuscitation, 2-Very Urgent / Emergent, 3-Urgent, 4-Standard / Less Urgent, 5-Non-Urgent)
✓ Correct
B
A billing software that generates patient invoices based on insurance coverage
C
A scheduling calendar for hospital laundry staff
D
A dietary planning menu for diabetic inpatients
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
ESI / MTS assigns triage acuity based on clinical severity and projected resource needs (Tier 1 = immediate life threat requiring zero delay, down to Tier 5 = non-urgent).
Q. 15
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] What operational strategy is termed 'Fast-Tracking' in hospital emergency department workflow design?
A
A dedicated care stream for low-acuity, ambulatory patients (ESI Level 4 and 5) that reduces overall ED crowding and minimizes length of stay for minor conditions
✓ Correct
B
Allowing VIP patients to bypass all medical examinations
C
Discharging ICU patients before surgery is completed
D
Speeding up hospital elevators during night shifts
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fast-track units treat simple lacerations, minor fractures, and non-severe infections in parallel, preventing minor cases from competing with high-acuity resuscitation bays.
Q. 16
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] What is the purpose of a 'Hospital Incident Command System' (HICS) during mass casualty incidents or external disasters?
A
A standardized, all-hazard organizational structure providing command, operational control, logistics, planning, and financial management during hospital crises
✓ Correct
B
A legal committee that files lawsuits against utility companies
C
An architectural plan for constructing new hospital wings
D
A software that tracks doctor attendance at medical conferences
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
HICS establishes defined roles (Incident Commander, Operations, Logistics, Planning, Finance) to coordinate hospital surge capacity and disaster response.
Q. 17
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] What is the operational function of a Hospital 'Central Sterile Services Department' (CSSD)?
A
Decontamination, cleaning, inspection, packaging, sterilization, and distribution of reusable surgical instruments and medical devices under strict aseptic controls
✓ Correct
B
Managing hospital financial payroll accounts
C
Conducting medical student anatomy lectures
D
Preparing dietary meals for hospital cafeterias
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
CSSD ensures surgical instrument sterility via steam autoclaving, ethylene oxide, or plasma sterilization, preventing surgical site infections (SSIs).
Q. 18
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] In outpatient clinic queue management, what is the 'Block Appointment System' compared to individual staggered appointments?
A
A group of patients is scheduled to arrive at the beginning of a specific time block (e.g. 5 patients at 9:00 AM) to absorb physician downtime from no-shows
✓ Correct
B
Patients are seen strictly in alphabetical order of their last names
C
Only one patient is admitted per calendar day
D
Appointments are allocated via a public lottery system
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Block scheduling schedules multiple patients per time slot, protecting physician utilization against high patient no-show rates while maintaining clinic throughput.
Q. 19
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] What does 'Hospital Discharge Planning' primarily aim to accomplish?
A
Coordinating clinical, pharmaceutical, rehabilitative, and social care transitions prior to patient departure to prevent unnecessary 30-day hospital readmissions
✓ Correct
B
Collecting all outstanding hospital fees in cash at the bedside
C
Confiscating patient medical charts before they exit the building
D
Transferring all discharged patients to nursing hostels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Proactive discharge planning begins at admission, ensuring medication reconciliation, home care coordination, and follow-up scheduling to lower readmission risk.
Q. 20
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 2] In operating room (OR) management, what is 'Turnaround Time' (TAT) between surgical cases?
A
The elapsed time from one patient wheeling out of the operating room ('Wheels Out') to the next patient wheeling into the room ('Wheels In')
✓ Correct
B
The total duration of the surgical incision and closure
C
The time required for an anesthesiologist to inject local anesthetic
D
The time taken to wash surgical gowns in the hospital laundry
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
OR Turnaround Time includes room cleaning, disinfection, surgical instrument tray setup, and anesthesia preparation; minimizing TAT optimizes expensive OR block utilization.
Q. 21
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 3] What does 'Bed Occupancy Rate' (BOR) measure in hospital operational performance?
A
The percentage of available hospital beds occupied by inpatients over a given period: (Total Inpatient Days / Available Bed Days) * 100
✓ Correct
B
The number of empty hospital beds in the emergency department
C
The physical dimensions of hospital bed frames in centimeters
D
The total number of patients treated in the outpatient clinic
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BOR is a fundamental hospital utilization metric. Ideal operational BOR ranges between 80-85% to maintain flexibility for acute emergency admissions.
Q. 22
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 3] What does the 'Average Length of Stay' (ALOS) indicate and how is it calculated?
A
Total Inpatient Days of Care / Total Number of Discharges and Deaths during a specified period
✓ Correct
B
The time spent waiting in the outpatient pharmacy queue
C
The duration of a surgeon's pre-operative scrub
D
The total hours an ambulance spends parked outside emergency
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
ALOS measures clinical efficiency and inpatient bed turnover. Declining ALOS without elevated readmission rates reflects efficient clinical pathway management.
Q. 23
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 3] What is 'Bed Turnover Interval' (BTI) in hospital inpatient resource planning?
A
The average time (in days or hours) that a bed remains vacant between the discharge of one patient and the admission of the next
✓ Correct
B
The speed at which nursing staff change bed linens
C
The mechanical rotation of orthopedic traction beds
D
The total number of beds transferred between hospital wards
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
BTI = (Available Bed Days - Inpatient Days) / Discharges. A negative BTI indicates bed shortage/overcrowding, while a large BTI indicates underutilized capacity.
Q. 24
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 3] In emergency department triage, what is the 'Manchester Triage System' (MTS) / Emergency Severity Index (ESI)?
A
A standardized clinical algorithm categorizing emergency patients into 5 acuity tiers (1-Immediate / Resuscitation, 2-Very Urgent / Emergent, 3-Urgent, 4-Standard / Less Urgent, 5-Non-Urgent)
✓ Correct
B
A billing software that generates patient invoices based on insurance coverage
C
A scheduling calendar for hospital laundry staff
D
A dietary planning menu for diabetic inpatients
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
ESI / MTS assigns triage acuity based on clinical severity and projected resource needs (Tier 1 = immediate life threat requiring zero delay, down to Tier 5 = non-urgent).
Q. 25
Hospital Administration
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
[Hospital Operations Unit 3] What operational strategy is termed 'Fast-Tracking' in hospital emergency department workflow design?
A
A dedicated care stream for low-acuity, ambulatory patients (ESI Level 4 and 5) that reduces overall ED crowding and minimizes length of stay for minor conditions
✓ Correct
B
Allowing VIP patients to bypass all medical examinations
C
Discharging ICU patients before surgery is completed
D
Speeding up hospital elevators during night shifts
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fast-track units treat simple lacerations, minor fractures, and non-severe infections in parallel, preventing minor cases from competing with high-acuity resuscitation bays.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 300 Questions
(8%)
Jump to:
🎉
All 300 Solved Questions in Hospital Administration Loaded!
You have studied the complete question pool with step-by-step rationales. Ready to test yourself?
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 2736 Questions
(1%)
Jump to:
🎉
All 2736 Solved Questions in English Language Comprehension Loaded!
You have studied the complete question pool with step-by-step rationales. Ready to test yourself?
Q. 1
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25
General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 2666 Questions
(1%)
Jump to:
🎉
All 2666 Solved Questions in General Knowledge Loaded!
You have studied the complete question pool with step-by-step rationales. Ready to test yourself?
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Choose the correct answer for the following Pakistan Studies questions:
Q. 1
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which province of Pakistan is called Bab-ul-Islam?
A
Punjab
B
Sindh
✓ Correct
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Balochistan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sindh is known as the "Gateway of Islam" because it was the first region conquered by Muslims.
Q. 2
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim during the ____ period.
A
Umayyads
✓ Correct
B
Abbasids
C
Tulun
D
Idrisids
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The conquest occurred during the reign of the Umayyad Caliph Al-Walid I.
Q. 3
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim was the nephew of
A
Sulayman bin Abdul Malik
B
Abdul Malik bin Marwan
C
Walid bin Abdul Malik
D
Hajjaj bin Yousaf
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the nephew and son-in-law of Hajjaj, the governor of Iraq.
Q. 4
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim in ____ A.D.
A
712
✓ Correct
B
713
C
714
D
715
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The decisive campaign against Raja Dahir culminated in the victory of 712 AD.
Q. 5
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was the ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Dehli
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the last Hindu king of the Brahman dynasty in Sindh.
Q. 6
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was defeated by
A
Yazid bin Mulhib
B
Muhammad bin Qasim
✓ Correct
C
Tariq bin Ziyad
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The young Arab general defeated Dahir at the Battle of Aror.
Q. 7
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Debul and Alor are the names of
A
Places of Ancient Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Old Gardens of Sindh
C
Old Games of Sindh
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Debul was a seaport and Alor (Aror) was the capital of Sindh.
Q. 8
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Chach Nama is the ancient history of
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Rawalpindi
D
Sindh
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This historical work details the Chach Dynasty and the Arab conquest of Sindh.
Q. 9
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Makli Hill is the name of ____ which is situated in province of Sindh.
A
Graveyard
✓ Correct
B
Playground
C
Ancient building
D
Local dance
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Makli is one of the largest necropolises (cemeteries) in the world.
Q. 10
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Chach?
A
Father of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
B
Son of Raja Dahir
C
Son in law of Dahir
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chach of Aror was the founder of the Brahman dynasty and Dahir's father.
Q. 11
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who was Sisakar?
A
Wazir of Hajjaj bin Yousaf
B
Wazir of Muhammad bin Qasim
C
Wazir of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the Prime Minister of Raja Dahir who later joined the Muslim side.
Q. 12
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mohenjodaro is located in ____
A
Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Baluchistan
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Punjab
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This Indus Valley Civilization site is located in the Larkana District of Sindh.
Q. 13
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Al-Arus a huge balista used by Muhammad bin Qasim during the conquest of ____
A
Lahore
B
Depalpur
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Peshawar
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Al-Arus was a massive catapult used to breach the walls of Debul in Sindh.
Q. 14
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim tortured to death in a prison in Iraq during the caliphate of ____
A
Sulaiman
✓ Correct
B
Walid
C
Yazid
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the death of Walid I and Hajjaj, Caliph Sulaiman bin Abdul Malik imprisoned him.
Q. 15
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 133 A.H/750 A.D. the Abbasids overthrew the ____
A
Safvids
B
Mughals
C
Umayyads
✓ Correct
D
Meds
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Abbasid Revolution ended the rule of the Umayyad dynasty.
Q. 16
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
The Abbasids Governor came to Sindh in 140 A.H./757 A.D.
A
Hisham
B
Walid
C
Musa
✓ Correct
D
Yasir
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Musa bin Ka'b al-Tamimi was the first Abbasid governor of Sindh.
Q. 17
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Waihind (Modern Hund in District Attock) was the capital of ____
A
Umayyads
B
Abbassids
C
Mughals
D
Hindu Shahis
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hund served as the second capital of the Hindu Shahi kingdom.
Q. 18
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In 367 A.H/777 A.D, Subuktigin, a Turkish slave become the master of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Depalpur
D
Ghazni
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sebuktigin founded the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan.
Q. 19
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Subuktigin died in August 997 A.D and was... succeeded by his brilliant and ambitious son, ____
A
Ahmad
B
Mahmood
✓ Correct
C
Ayaz
D
Arsalan
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni succeeded his father and expanded the empire into India.
Q. 20
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood’s first important battle was fought against ____ near Peshawar in 8 Muharram 392 A.H 25 November 1001 A.D.
A
Jaipal
✓ Correct
B
Sukhpal
C
Anandpal
D
None of them
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud defeated the Shahi King Jaipal at the Battle of Peshawar.
Q. 21
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abu-al-Fath Daud was the Ismaili ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
✓ Correct
C
Sindh
D
Depalpur
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud of Ghazni conquered Multan from the Ismaili ruler Abul Fath Daud.
Q. 22
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood set out on the expedition to Somnath on 17 October ____
A
1023 A.D
B
1024 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1025 A.D
D
1026 A.D
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The expedition to the famous temple took place between 1024 and 1025.
Q. 23
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Mahmood breathed his last sigh on 30 April ____
A
1024 A.D.
B
1026 A.D.
C
1028 A.D.
D
1030 A.D.
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud passed away in Ghazni in the year 1030.
Q. 24
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D the first battle of Traain was fought between Muhammad Ghauri and Rajputs... Muhammad Ghauri defeated in this battle.
A
1189
B
1190
C
1191
✓ Correct
D
1192
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghauri in the first engagement at Tarain.
Q. 25
Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
In ____ A.D. the second battle of Train was fought and Rajputs defeated in this battle.
A
1190
B
1191
C
1192
✓ Correct
D
1193
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ghauri returned a year later and decisively defeated the Rajput confederacy.
Study Stream Progress:
Showing 25 of 3092 Questions
(1%)
Jump to:
🎉
All 3092 Solved Questions in Pakistan Affairs Loaded!
You have studied the complete question pool with step-by-step rationales. Ready to test yourself?
Ready to Test Your Retention & Speed?
Now that you have reviewed the study questions and rationales, test yourself in our interactive 1-by-1 practice engine or take the full official timed mock exam.