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GYM TRAINER (MARKET COMPETITIVE) Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers

Private Sector Recruitment Examination Syllabus & Question Bank

8704 Total Questions
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4 Subject Areas
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🎯 High-Yield Preparation Strategy

📘 Official Examination Scheme, Question Blueprint & Interview Masterclass

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Official Written Examination Blueprint & Master Preparation Guide

Candidate Selection Architecture for GYM TRAINER (BS-16)

📋 1. Examination Scheme & Marking Blueprint

The competitive recruitment screening for GYM TRAINER (BS-16) consists of a single-paper 100-mark Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) written examination evaluating Physical Education, English Language Comprehension, General Knowledge, and Pakistan Affairs. The assessment duration is standardized at 90 minutes. A strict qualifying benchmark of 50% aggregate marks is mandatory for merit consideration. Negative marking is applied at a rate of 0.25 marks deducted per incorrect response, requiring candidates to exercise disciplined accuracy during question selection. Top-merit qualifiers are shortlisted for panel interview scrutiny at a ratio of 1:5 against announced vacancies.

Examination Subject / Question Type Target Marks Weightage Cognitive Focus & Syllabus Benchmark
Physical Education 50 MCQs 50% Kinesiology & Biomechanics, Sports Physiology, Rules of Games & Tournaments, Athletic Conditioning
English Language Comprehension 20 MCQs 20% Grammar rules, sentence structuring, vocabulary, reading comprehension
General Knowledge 15 MCQs 15% World affairs, international organizations, geography, everyday facts
Pakistan Affairs 15 MCQs 15% Constitutional history, Pakistan movement, national affairs, economy

💡 2. High-Yield Conceptual Problem Solving & Case Scenarios

Mastery of applied operational problems is essential for securing top-tier percentiles. The following high-yield case scenarios reflect actual operational scenarios encountered in competitive selection exams:

Scenario 1: Public Procurement Grievance Redressal & Tender Scrutiny

Operational Dilemma: A disqualified bidder lodges formal complaint under PPRA Rule 48 alleging technical evaluation bias in procurement of departmental IT infrastructure.

💡 Model Answer & Protocol: 1. Convene Grievance Redressal Committee (GRC) within 3 days. 2. Review original technical evaluation matrix against published tender RFP criteria. 3. Verify whether disqualified bidder submitted mandatory ISO certifications and audited tax returns. 4. Prepare speaking order articulating factual non-compliance. 5. Issue formal written determination within 15 days of grievance receipt.
Standard: Strict adherence to PPRA 2004 Rule 48 and transparency mandates without stalling procurement timeline.
Scenario 2: Departmental Budget Reconciliation & Audit Para Settlement

Operational Dilemma: Director General Audit raises Advance Para regarding irregular expenditure and non-reconciliation of departmental drawing accounts.

💡 Model Answer & Protocol: 1. Reconcile Treasury Bill entries with AGPR / District Accounts Office monthly statements. 2. Compile supporting sanction orders, comparative statement, and stock entry registers. 3. Formulate comprehensive Departmental Accounts Committee (DAC) working paper. 4. Present settled vouchers before DAC chair for para deletion.
Standard: 100% financial compliance under General Financial Rules (GFR Vol-I) and Treasury Rules.
Scenario 3: Civil Service Disciplinary Inquiry & Fact-Finding Inquiry

Operational Dilemma: Formal complaint received alleging official misconduct and unauthorized absence against subordinate staff member.

💡 Model Answer & Protocol: 1. Frame clear charge sheet and statement of allegations under Civil Servants (Efficiency and Discipline) Rules 2020. 2. Appoint neutral Inquiry Officer (BS-17/18). 3. Afford accused 10 days for written defense and personal hearing. 4. Review inquiry report containing definite findings on each charge. 5. Forward recommended penalty to Authorized Officer.
Standard: Due process and natural justice compliance under E&D Rules 2020.

🎯 3. Departmental Selection Board Viva Voce & Panel Interview

Candidates shortlisted after the written screening will appear before a 3 to 5 member Departmental Selection Board. Interviews evaluate professional mastery, situational integrity, and knowledge of official rules.

Q1: What are the fundamental principles of official noting and drafting in government offices?
Model Response: Official notes must be concise, factual, and free from personal bias. They must state the case history, reference relevant rules and precedents, summarize financial/administrative implications, and present clear, numbered recommendations for decision.
Q2: What constitutes a valid administrative sanction under General Financial Rules (GFR)?
Model Response: A valid sanction requires competence of authority under Delegation of Financial Powers, budget availability under the specific expenditure head, adherence to procurement rules, and prior concurrence of finance division where required.
Q3: Explain the statutory hierarchy of administrative law in federal governance of Pakistan.
Model Response: Constitution of Pakistan 1973 sits at the apex, followed by Primary Acts of Parliament (e.g. Civil Servants Act 1973), Subordinate Statutory Rules (Rules of Business 1973), and Departmental Standing Orders/ESTACODE provisions.
Q4: What is the role of the Public Accounts Committee (PAC)?
Model Response: The PAC is a parliamentary standing committee that examines appropriation accounts of ministries and Auditor General reports, ensuring public funds were legally spent for authorized purposes with economy and integrity.
Q5: What steps are required when handling classified secret documents under Official Secrets Act 1923?
Model Response: Classified files must be stored in secure steel cabinets, moved via sealed transit bags with chain-of-custody dispatch registers, shared strictly on need-to-know basis, and never duplicated or transmitted across unencrypted public networks.

📅 4. 14-Day Strategic Revision Roadmap

Execute this structured two-week study plan to consolidate syllabus coverage and peak cognitive readiness:

  • Days 1-5: Public Administration Mastery: Cover core theoretical foundations, statutory frameworks, technical standards, and high-frequency past paper questions.
  • Days 6-8: English Consolidation: Practice applied concepts, terminology, analytical structures, and domain-specific problem sets.
  • Days 9-11: General Knowledge & Complementary Modules: Revise essential facts, regulatory rules, and cross-functional aptitude topics.
  • Days 12-13: Error Log & Viva Voce Preparation: Review weak topic areas and rehearse oral responses for the Departmental Selection Board interview.
  • Day 14: Full-Length Timed Mock Simulation: Complete two 100-MCQ timed mock tests strictly within 90 minutes to lock in pacing.
Q. 1 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What are the standard international field dimensions for Field Hockey according to the International Hockey Federation (FIH)?
A
91.40 meters long by 55.00 meters wide (100 yards by 60 yards)
✓ Correct
B
100 meters long by 75 meters wide
C
80 meters long by 40 meters wide
D
120 meters long by 90 meters wide
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under FIH rules, a standard hockey pitch is 91.40 meters (100 yards) in length and 55.00 meters (60 yards) in width, divided by a center line and two 23-meter lines.
Q. 2 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What are the official goal dimensions (width between posts and height to crossbar) in Field Hockey?
A
3.66 meters wide by 2.14 meters high (12 ft by 7 ft)
✓ Correct
B
7.32 meters wide by 2.44 meters high
C
2.00 meters wide by 2.00 meters high
D
5.00 meters wide by 2.50 meters high
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The hockey goal consists of two vertical posts 3.66 meters (4 yards) apart joined by a horizontal crossbar 2.14 meters (7 feet) from the ground.
Q. 3 Physical Education
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the official weight range of a field hockey ball according to FIH regulations?
A
156 grams to 163 grams
✓ Correct
B
100 grams to 110 grams
C
200 grams to 220 grams
D
260 grams to 280 grams
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An official FIH hockey ball is hard, spherical, made of plastic or composite, with a circumference between 224-235 mm and weight between 156-163 grams.
Q. 4 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Under modern FIH international rules, what is the total match duration and structure of a Field Hockey game?
A
Four quarters of 15 minutes each (60 minutes total playing time)
✓ Correct
B
Two halves of 35 minutes each
C
Two halves of 45 minutes each
D
Three periods of 20 minutes each
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
FIH adopted the 4-quarter format: four 15-minute quarters (60 min total), with 2-minute breaks after quarters 1 and 3, and a 10-minute halftime break.
Q. 5 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
In Field Hockey, what does a Green Card shown by an umpire signify?
A
A temporary suspension of 2 minutes of playing time for the offending player
✓ Correct
B
A permanent expulsion from the match
C
A temporary suspension of 5 minutes
D
An award of a free hit
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under FIH rules, a Green card represents an official warning that carries an automatic 2-minute temporary suspension. Yellow is $\ge 5$ minutes, and Red is permanent expulsion.
Q. 6 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is the minimum duration of suspension when a player is shown a Yellow Card in Field Hockey?
A
5 minutes
✓ Correct
B
2 minutes
C
10 minutes
D
15 minutes
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Yellow card indicates a serious foul resulting in a temporary suspension of a minimum of 5 minutes (or 10 minutes at the umpire's discretion).
Q. 7 Physical Education
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
From what exact distance from the center of the goal line is a Penalty Stroke taken in Field Hockey?
A
6.40 meters (7 yards)
✓ Correct
B
9.15 meters (10 yards)
C
11.00 meters (12 yards)
D
5.00 meters
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The penalty stroke spot in field hockey is marked 6.40 meters (7 yards) directly in front of the center of the goal line.
Q. 8 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
In Field Hockey, a goal can only be scored if the ball is touched or hit by an attacker within which boundary?
A
The Shooting Circle (Striking Circle / 14.63m 'D')
✓ Correct
B
The 23-meter area
C
Anywhere on the entire pitch
D
Only inside the goal box
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A goal is scored only when the ball is touched or played within the striking circle (radius 14.63m / 16 yards from the goalposts) by an attacking player before entering the goal.
Q. 9 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
How many total players (including the goalkeeper) constitute a field hockey team on the pitch at one time?
A
11 players
✓ Correct
B
9 players
C
7 players
D
6 players
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A field hockey team has 11 active players on the pitch (typically 1 goalkeeper and 10 field players) with rolling substitutions permitted from the bench.
Q. 10 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which side of the field hockey stick is legally permitted to make contact with the ball?
A
Only the flat face (smooth front side)
✓ Correct
B
Only the rounded back side
C
Both flat and rounded sides equally
D
The edges only
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Rule 9.2 states that field players must not play the ball with the back (rounded side) of the stick; only the flat face is legal.
Q. 11 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What are the official dimensions of a standard Volleyball court under FIVB regulations?
A
18 meters long by 9 meters wide
✓ Correct
B
20 meters long by 10 meters wide
C
16 meters long by 8 meters wide
D
28 meters long by 15 meters wide
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An FIVB volleyball court is a rectangle measuring 18 meters in length and 9 meters in width, divided into two 9m x 9m halves by a center line.
Q. 12 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is the official net height in Volleyball for Men's and Women's competitions, respectively?
A
2.43 meters for Men and 2.24 meters for Women
✓ Correct
B
2.50 meters for Men and 2.30 meters for Women
C
2.35 meters for Men and 2.15 meters for Women
D
2.40 meters for both Men and Women
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The official net height measured from the center of the court is 2.43 meters (7 ft 11 5/8 in) for men and 2.24 meters (7 ft 4 1/8 in) for women.
Q. 13 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
How many players from each team are on the volleyball court during active play?
A
6 players
✓ Correct
B
5 players
C
7 players
D
9 players
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Each volleyball team plays with 6 players on court: 3 front-row players (positions 4, 3, 2) and 3 back-row players (positions 5, 6, 1).
Q. 14 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
In Volleyball, players rotate across positions on the court in which direction whenever they win the serve from the opposing team?
A
Clockwise direction
✓ Correct
B
Counter-clockwise direction
C
Randomly as chosen by the coach
D
No rotation is required
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
When the receiving team gains the right to serve, its players rotate one position in a clockwise direction (e.g., position 2 moves to position 1 to serve).
Q. 15 Physical Education
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which of the following restrictions strictly applies to the specialized defensive player known as the 'Libero' in Volleyball?
A
The Libero cannot serve, block, attempt to block, or complete an attack hit from anywhere if the ball is entirely above net height
✓ Correct
B
The Libero must wear the exact same uniform as teammates
C
The Libero can only play in the front row
D
The Libero is the team captain
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Libero wears a contrasting jersey, is restricted to the back row, and cannot serve, block, attempt to block, or attack a ball above net height.
Q. 16 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
In standard competitive Volleyball (Rally Point System), how many points are needed to win sets 1 through 4?
A
25 points with a minimum 2-point lead
✓ Correct
B
21 points with a minimum 2-point lead
C
15 points straight
D
30 points straight
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under FIVB rules, sets 1 to 4 are won by the team that first scores 25 points with a minimum lead of 2 points (no point ceiling). The 5th deciding set is played to 15 points (lead of 2).
Q. 17 Physical Education
Difficulty: Hard (1 Mark)
What is the total length and overhang of the flexible antennae fastened to the volleyball net above the boundary lines?
A
Total length 1.80 meters, with 80 centimeters extending above the top of the net
✓ Correct
B
Total length 1.00 meter, completely within the net
C
Total length 2.50 meters, extending 1.5 meters above
D
Total length 3.00 meters
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The antennae are 1.80m long and 10mm in diameter; the top 80cm extends above the net marked with 10cm contrasting color bands to demarcate the crossing space.
Q. 18 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is the maximum number of team ball contacts allowed in Volleyball before the ball must be returned over the net (excluding block touches)?
A
3 contacts
✓ Correct
B
2 contacts
C
4 contacts
D
Unlimited
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A team is entitled to a maximum of 3 hits (in addition to blocking) for returning the ball; a 4th hit constitutes a 'Four Hits' fault.
Q. 19 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
In Volleyball, from what distance from the center line is the Attack Line (3-meter line) marked in each court half?
A
3 meters
✓ Correct
B
4 meters
C
2 meters
D
5 meters
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The attack line is drawn 3 meters back from the center line in both courts, demarcating the front zone from the back zone.
Q. 20 Physical Education
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the weight range of an official FIVB competitive volleyball?
A
260 grams to 280 grams
✓ Correct
B
150 grams to 180 grams
C
350 grams to 400 grams
D
410 grams to 450 grams
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
FIVB standards require a volleyball circumference of 65-67 cm, weight of 260-280 g, and internal pressure of 0.30 to 0.325 kg/cm2 (4.26 to 4.61 psi).
Q. 21 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
According to the IFAB Laws of the Game, what are the standard dimensions for international football match pitches?
A
Length 100-110 meters, Width 64-75 meters
✓ Correct
B
Length 80-90 meters, Width 45-50 meters
C
Length 120-130 meters, Width 90-100 meters
D
Length 90 meters, Width 90 meters (square)
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
IFAB Law 1 mandates international match pitch dimensions: length 100-110m (110-120 yds) and width 64-75m (70-80 yds).
Q. 22 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What are the official goal dimensions (width between posts and height to crossbar) in Football?
A
7.32 meters wide by 2.44 meters high (8 yards by 8 feet)
✓ Correct
B
6.00 meters wide by 2.00 meters high
C
3.66 meters wide by 2.14 meters high
D
8.00 meters wide by 3.00 meters high
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The distance between the inside of the posts is 7.32m (8 yds), and the distance from the lower edge of the crossbar to the ground is 2.44m (8 ft).
Q. 23 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
From what distance from the goal line is a Penalty Kick taken in Football?
A
11 meters (12 yards)
✓ Correct
B
9.15 meters (10 yards)
C
16.5 meters (18 yards)
D
7 meters
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The penalty mark is placed 11 meters (12 yards) from the midpoint between the goalposts along the perpendicular center line.
Q. 24 Physical Education
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the radius of the Center Circle and the Penalty Arc in Football?
A
9.15 meters (10 yards)
✓ Correct
B
11.00 meters
C
5.50 meters
D
16.50 meters
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Opponents must remain at least 9.15m (10 yards) from the ball at kickoff and free kicks; the center circle and penalty arc both have a radius of 9.15m.
Q. 25 Physical Education
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
According to Law 11 of the IFAB Laws of the Game, a player is NOT in an offside position if they are:
A
In their own half of the field of play, or level with the second-last opponent or the ball
✓ Correct
B
Ahead of all defenders
C
Standing inside the opponent's goal net
D
Receiving a pass while in the opposing half ahead of the ball
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A player cannot be offside in their own half of the field, or if level with the second-last opponent (or last two opponents) or level with the ball.
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📜Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25 English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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Q. 1 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is H_5 N_1?
A
Virus
✓ Correct
B
Bacteria
C
Vaccine
D
Fungi
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
H_5 N_1 is a highly infectious subtype of the Influenza A virus that primarily affects birds but can infect humans.
Q. 2 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which of the following Russian's oil and gas company, which provides oil and gas to European countries?
A
BSGO Company
B
Gazprome Company
✓ Correct
C
Gestapo Company
D
Nindo Oil and Gas Company
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Gazprom is a majority state-owned multinational energy corporation and the largest supplier of natural gas to Europe.
Q. 3 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which one of the following planets has the maximum number of satellites?
A
Jupiter
B
Saturn
✓ Correct
C
Venus
D
Uranus
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While Jupiter was historically cited, Saturn is recognized in the source as having the highest number of documented moons at the time.
Q. 4 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which is the largest planet?
A
Venus
B
Earth
C
Jupiter
✓ Correct
D
Mars
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest planet in our solar system by both mass and volume.
Q. 5 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What was the main reason of disqualification of Arial Sharon for office of Prime Minister of Israel?
A
He completed two terms
B
He was impeached
C
Due to Illness
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ariel Sharon was incapacitated by a massive stroke in early 2006, which led to his permanent inability to perform his duties.
Q. 6 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which of the following vessels of blood carry blood from different parts of the body to heart?
A
Veins
✓ Correct
B
Arteries
C
Capillaries
D
Vessels
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Veins are the blood vessels responsible for transporting deoxygenated blood from various body tissues back to the heart.
Q. 7 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What are the two seas linked by Suez Canal?
A
The Mediterranean Sea and Baltic Sea
B
The Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
✓ Correct
C
The Black Sea and Baltic Sea
D
The Black Sea and South China Sea
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea.
Q. 8 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Diego Garcia is a:
A
A famous airline of Singapore
B
French surface to Sea Missile
C
United States military base in Indian Ocean
✓ Correct
D
The disputed island between Russia and Japan
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Diego Garcia is an atoll in the central Indian Ocean that hosts a major strategic military facility for the United States.
Q. 9 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
In which year European rulers captured Palestine from the Muslims in Crusade War?
A
1095 A.D
B
1099 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1115 A.D
D
1199 A.D
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The First Crusade culminated in the Siege of Jerusalem in 1099 A.D., when European forces captured the city.
Q. 10 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is Kremlin?
A
Offices of Russian Government
✓ Correct
B
Offices of Sri Lankan Government
C
Building in Japan used for theater
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Kremlin is a fortified complex in the heart of Moscow that serves as the official residence of the Russian President.
Q. 11 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
A mass of ice originating in mountains in snowfields above the snowline is called:
A
Mountain River
B
Glaciers
✓ Correct
C
Lakes and water falls
D
None of the above
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Glaciers are large, persistent bodies of ice that form where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation over many years.
Q. 12 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the diameter of earth?
A
11756 km
B
12756 km
✓ Correct
C
13756 km
D
14756 km
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The equatorial diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 kilometers, reflecting its slightly oblate shape.
Q. 13 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is the freezing point of heavy water?
A
3.82 $^o$ C
✓ Correct
B
2.82 $^o$ C
C
1.82 $^o$ C
D
0.82 $^o$ C
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Heavy water (deuterium oxide) has a higher freezing point than normal water, occurring at approximately 3.82 degrees Celsius.
Q. 14 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
How many satellites (moons) of Saturn planet?
A
36
B
56
✓ Correct
C
27
D
23
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This number reflects the count of Saturn's moons documented at the time the original source material was compiled.
Q. 15 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Which of the following died of natural death:
A
Indira Gandhi
B
Mahatma Gandhi
C
Rajiv Gandhi
D
None of the above
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Indira Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi, and Rajiv Gandhi were all victims of assassination rather than dying of natural causes.
Q. 16 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Head Office of UNESCO is located at:
A
Paris
✓ Correct
B
Geneva
C
London
D
Washington
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
UNESCO is headquartered in Paris, France, where it coordinates international cooperation in education, science, and culture.
Q. 17 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
What is the main cause of earthquakes?
A
Volcanic activities
B
Tectonic plate's movement
✓ Correct
C
Tectonic dislocation
D
All of above
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Most earthquakes are caused by the sudden release of energy along faults in the Earth's crust due to tectonic plate movements.
Q. 18 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
'Digital divide' term is related with:
A
Economics
B
Socio economic difference technology era
✓ Correct
C
Political Science
D
Journalism
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The digital divide refers to the gap between demographics and regions that have access to modern information technology and those that don't.
Q. 19 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
What is Ivy League?
A
A Group of Eight University in USA
✓ Correct
B
A Group of People in Switzerland
C
A Football League tournament
D
A Group of Islands in Atlantic Ocean
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Ivy League is an American collegiate athletic conference comprising eight private research universities in the Northeastern United States.
Q. 20 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
"Every action has reaction which are equal but in opposite direction". The law is called:
A
Newton's first law of motion
B
Newton's second law of motion
C
Newton's third law of motion
✓ Correct
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Newton's third law states that for every action force, there is an equal and opposite reaction force.
Q. 21 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Pure water can be obtained from seawater by the process of:
A
Filtration
B
Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Evaporation
D
None of these
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Distillation involves boiling seawater to create steam and then condensing it into pure liquid water, leaving salts behind.
Q. 22 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Common salt is obtained from seawater by:
A
Sublimation
B
Evaporation
✓ Correct
C
Crystallisation
D
Filtration
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Seawater is collected in shallow ponds where solar heat causes the water to evaporate, leaving behind salt crystals.
Q. 23 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Gasoline is obtained from crude oil by the process of:
A
Evaporation
B
Fractional Distillation
✓ Correct
C
Distillation
D
Filtration
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Fractional distillation separates crude oil into different components, like gasoline, based on their different boiling points.
Q. 24 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
An electric kettle used for boiling hard water has a white scale deposited on its heating element. This consists of:
A
Sugar
B
Common Salt
C
Carbonates of Calcium and Magnesium
✓ Correct
D
Sodium Carbonate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Limescale is primarily composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates that precipitate out of hard water when heated.
Q. 25 General Knowledge
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Washing soda is:
A
Sodium Chloride
B
Hydrated Sodium Carbonate
✓ Correct
C
Sodium Carbonate
D
Calcium Carbonate
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Washing soda is the chemical compound sodium carbonate decahydrate, commonly used as a water softener.
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📜Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Choose the correct answer for the following Pakistan Studies questions:
Q. 1 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Which province of Pakistan is called Bab-ul-Islam?
A
Punjab
B
Sindh
✓ Correct
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Balochistan
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sindh is known as the "Gateway of Islam" because it was the first region conquered by Muslims.
Q. 2 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim during the ____ period.
A
Umayyads
✓ Correct
B
Abbasids
C
Tulun
D
Idrisids
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The conquest occurred during the reign of the Umayyad Caliph Al-Walid I.
Q. 3 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim was the nephew of
A
Sulayman bin Abdul Malik
B
Abdul Malik bin Marwan
C
Walid bin Abdul Malik
D
Hajjaj bin Yousaf
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the nephew and son-in-law of Hajjaj, the governor of Iraq.
Q. 4 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Sindh was conquered by Muhammad bin Qasim in ____ A.D.
A
712
✓ Correct
B
713
C
714
D
715
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The decisive campaign against Raja Dahir culminated in the victory of 712 AD.
Q. 5 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was the ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Dehli
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Depalpur
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the last Hindu king of the Brahman dynasty in Sindh.
Q. 6 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Raja Dahir was defeated by
A
Yazid bin Mulhib
B
Muhammad bin Qasim
✓ Correct
C
Tariq bin Ziyad
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The young Arab general defeated Dahir at the Battle of Aror.
Q. 7 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Debul and Alor are the names of
A
Places of Ancient Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Old Gardens of Sindh
C
Old Games of Sindh
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Debul was a seaport and Alor (Aror) was the capital of Sindh.
Q. 8 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Chach Nama is the ancient history of
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Rawalpindi
D
Sindh
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This historical work details the Chach Dynasty and the Arab conquest of Sindh.
Q. 9 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Makli Hill is the name of ____ which is situated in province of Sindh.
A
Graveyard
✓ Correct
B
Playground
C
Ancient building
D
Local dance
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Makli is one of the largest necropolises (cemeteries) in the world.
Q. 10 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Who was Chach?
A
Father of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
B
Son of Raja Dahir
C
Son in law of Dahir
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Chach of Aror was the founder of the Brahman dynasty and Dahir's father.
Q. 11 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Who was Sisakar?
A
Wazir of Hajjaj bin Yousaf
B
Wazir of Muhammad bin Qasim
C
Wazir of Raja Dahir
✓ Correct
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
He was the Prime Minister of Raja Dahir who later joined the Muslim side.
Q. 12 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mohenjodaro is located in ____
A
Sindh
✓ Correct
B
Baluchistan
C
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D
Punjab
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This Indus Valley Civilization site is located in the Larkana District of Sindh.
Q. 13 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Al-Arus a huge balista used by Muhammad bin Qasim during the conquest of ____
A
Lahore
B
Depalpur
C
Sindh
✓ Correct
D
Peshawar
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Al-Arus was a massive catapult used to breach the walls of Debul in Sindh.
Q. 14 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Muhammad bin Qasim tortured to death in a prison in Iraq during the caliphate of ____
A
Sulaiman
✓ Correct
B
Walid
C
Yazid
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Following the death of Walid I and Hajjaj, Caliph Sulaiman bin Abdul Malik imprisoned him.
Q. 15 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In 133 A.H/750 A.D. the Abbasids overthrew the ____
A
Safvids
B
Mughals
C
Umayyads
✓ Correct
D
Meds
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Abbasid Revolution ended the rule of the Umayyad dynasty.
Q. 16 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
The Abbasids Governor came to Sindh in 140 A.H./757 A.D.
A
Hisham
B
Walid
C
Musa
✓ Correct
D
Yasir
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Musa bin Ka'b al-Tamimi was the first Abbasid governor of Sindh.
Q. 17 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Easy (1 Mark)
Waihind (Modern Hund in District Attock) was the capital of ____
A
Umayyads
B
Abbassids
C
Mughals
D
Hindu Shahis
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Hund served as the second capital of the Hindu Shahi kingdom.
Q. 18 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In 367 A.H/777 A.D, Subuktigin, a Turkish slave become the master of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
C
Depalpur
D
Ghazni
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sebuktigin founded the Ghaznavid dynasty in Afghanistan.
Q. 19 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Subuktigin died in August 997 A.D and was... succeeded by his brilliant and ambitious son, ____
A
Ahmad
B
Mahmood
✓ Correct
C
Ayaz
D
Arsalan
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni succeeded his father and expanded the empire into India.
Q. 20 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mahmood’s first important battle was fought against ____ near Peshawar in 8 Muharram 392 A.H 25 November 1001 A.D.
A
Jaipal
✓ Correct
B
Sukhpal
C
Anandpal
D
None of them
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud defeated the Shahi King Jaipal at the Battle of Peshawar.
Q. 21 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Abu-al-Fath Daud was the Ismaili ruler of ____
A
Lahore
B
Multan
✓ Correct
C
Sindh
D
Depalpur
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Mahmud of Ghazni conquered Multan from the Ismaili ruler Abul Fath Daud.
Q. 22 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mahmood set out on the expedition to Somnath on 17 October ____
A
1023 A.D
B
1024 A.D
✓ Correct
C
1025 A.D
D
1026 A.D
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The expedition to the famous temple took place between 1024 and 1025.
Q. 23 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
Mahmood breathed his last sigh on 30 April ____
A
1024 A.D.
B
1026 A.D.
C
1028 A.D.
D
1030 A.D.
✓ Correct
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Sultan Mahmud passed away in Ghazni in the year 1030.
Q. 24 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In ____ A.D the first battle of Traain was fought between Muhammad Ghauri and Rajputs... Muhammad Ghauri defeated in this battle.
A
1189
B
1190
C
1191
✓ Correct
D
1192
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Prithviraj Chauhan defeated Ghauri in the first engagement at Tarain.
Q. 25 Pakistan Affairs
Difficulty: Medium (1 Mark)
In ____ A.D. the second battle of Train was fought and Rajputs defeated in this battle.
A
1190
B
1191
C
1192
✓ Correct
D
1193
💡 Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ghauri returned a year later and decisively defeated the Rajput confederacy.
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