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Instructions / Reading Passage
11 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE TEST (Basic Computer Knowledge): Write the correct answer for the provided multiple-choice questions involving expert systems, industrial computer applications (POS, CIM, Actuarial accounting), and management information system (MIS) modeling.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Expert systems are part of the general area of research known as
A
AI
✓ Correct
B
ES
C
STUDENT
D
RAND
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broad field that encompasses the development of expert systems.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the future, users of a computer system may identify themselves by entering a:
A
Hard print
B
Soft print
C
Voice print
✓ Correct
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Biometric identification methods include voice recognition (voice prints) for user authentication.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The most prominent system in the retail sales industry is the ________ system:
A
POS (point-of-scale)
✓ Correct
B
COBOL
C
ACM
D
PC/XT
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Point of Sale systems are standard for managing transactions and inventory in retail.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The integration of the computer with manufacturing is called CIM or
A
CAM
B
CAD
C
Computer manufacturing
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the full automation of a manufacturing facility.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A ________ purpose computer is designed for a specific application:
A
Special
✓ Correct
B
Analog
C
Hybrid
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special-purpose computers are built to perform one specific set of tasks or applications.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Actuarial accounting system is associated with the ________ industry:
A
Insurance
✓ Correct
B
Reliable
C
Consistent
D
Exhaustive
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Actuarial science is primarily used by the insurance industry to assess risk and uncertainty.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A variable that has no physical meaning and is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to a linear programming problem is known as:
A
Basis
B
Algorithm
C
Artificial variable
✓ Correct
D
Basic variable
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In linear programming, artificial variables are used to facilitate finding an initial feasible solution.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
QUB is an example of ________ systems:
A
Problem-solving
B
Inventory
C
Electronic shopping
✓ Correct
D
Algebra
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QUB (historically standing for Queen's University Belfast Electronic Shopping System experiment or similar early regional academic network paradigms referenced in localized commerce and MIS curriculums) is categorized as an early or specialized example of an Electronic shopping system or transactional network.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A
True
✓ Correct
B
False
C
Cannot be said
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Slack in project management represents the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the deadline.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The latest time that the event can be delayed without delaying the completion of the entire project in PERT chart is:
A
Earliest allowable time
B
Latest allowable time
✓ Correct
C
Earliest pass
D
Latest pass
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This term defines the absolute deadline for a specific node in a PERT network.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Anthony suggested that the area of management planning and control be segmented into:
A
Operational control
B
Strategic planning
C
Management control
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anthony's framework includes Strategic Planning, Management Control, and Operational Control.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
14 Questions in this set
SYSTEMS AND DECISION-MAKING: Solve questions regarding transaction processing, data collection terminals, operations research history, and the files required for receiving and engineering control systems.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following does not fall in the personal Decision-Making Area?
A
Pay-rolls
B
Cash flow analysis
✓ Correct
C
Income-tax assessment and recovery
D
Person's experience
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cash flow analysis is typically an organizational or corporate financial function rather than personal.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much should an organisation spend for information can be determined by some type of a:
A
Cost analysis
B
Benefit analysis
C
Cost-benefit analysis
✓ Correct
D
Any of the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Organisations weigh the cost of data acquisition against the value/benefit it provides.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A transportation problem in which the total supply available at the origins exactly satisfies the total demand required at the destinations is known as:
A
Degenerate solution
B
Balanced transportation problem
✓ Correct
C
Unbalanced transportation problem
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A "Balanced" problem occurs when total supply equals total demand.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Operations Research came into being due to:
A
Medical reasons
B
Military reasons
✓ Correct
C
Educational reasons
D
To improve transpiration
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Operations Research originated for tactical and logistical planning during World War II.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The funds management subsystems attempts to:
A
Increase cash input
B
Decrease cash output
C
Balance cash inflow with outflow
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Effective funds management ensures liquidity by matching timing of inflows and outflows.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A turnaround document can be a(n):
A
Punched card
B
OCR document
C
Neither nor (b)
✓ Correct
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the specific classification of turnaround documents in the source answer key.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the financial Decision-Making system which of the following is not a transaction processing system input:
A
Cash receipts
B
Cash returns
C
Cash issues
D
Warehouse requisition ship
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Requisition slips are inventory/logistics inputs rather than direct financial transaction inputs.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Header labels contain:
A
Creation data
✓ Correct
B
Control totals
C
Both and (b)
D
Either nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File headers typically store metadata such as the creation date and file ID.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Detected money errors are corrected with:
A
Debit entries
B
Credit entries
C
Both and (b)
✓ Correct
D
Neither nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adjustments for errors require offsetting debit or credit entries depending on the nature of the error.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The model base contains programs:
A
Written by the firm's programmers
B
Provided by the computer vendor
C
Purchased from outside firms, such as software houses
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Decision Support System's model base can incorporate software from various origins.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Management has become more complex because:
A
There is less time to react to competitive actions
B
The equipment used in many of the firm's activities has become more complex
C
Firms have become larger
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Global competition, technological complexity, and organizational scale contribute to management difficulty.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What data most likely would not be keyed into the order entry subsystem?
A
Item quantity
B
Customer number
C
Item number
D
Item cost
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Costs are usually master data retrieved from a file rather than manually keyed per order.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The engineering change control system makes changes in the:
A
Operations file
✓ Correct
B
Production schedule
C
Work force data
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Design changes directly impact the steps and specifications in the operations file.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Corporate modeling software can be used for:
A
Cash planning
B
Operational budgeting
C
Capital budgeting
D
All the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modeling software assists in various strategic and operational planning tasks.
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Q. 1
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The Pakistan Environmental Protection Act (PEPA) was enacted in which year?
A
1983
B
1997
✓ Correct
C
2000
D
2010
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Pakistan Environmental Protection Act was passed by the Parliament and received the assent of the President in December 1997, replacing the earlier Environmental Protection Ordinance of 1983.
Q. 2
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 3 of the Pakistan Environmental Protection Act 1997, who is the Chairperson of the Pakistan Environmental Protection Council (PEPC)?
A
The Chief Justice of Pakistan
B
The Prime Minister of Pakistan (or an individual nominated by the PM)
✓ Correct
C
The Director General of Pak-EPA
D
The Minister for Climate Change exclusively
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 3(1) of PEPA 1997, the Pakistan Environmental Protection Council is the apex environmental policy body, chaired by the Prime Minister or such other person as the Prime Minister may nominate.
Q. 3
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Who serves as the ex-officio Secretary of the Pakistan Environmental Protection Council (PEPC)?
A
Secretary of the Ministry dealing with the subject of Environment / Climate Change
✓ Correct
B
Director General of Pak-EPA
C
Attorney General for Pakistan
D
Chairman WAPDA
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 3(4) of PEPA 1997, the Secretary to the Government of Pakistan in charge of the Ministry dealing with Environment serves as the Secretary of the Council.
Q. 4
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How often is the Pakistan Environmental Protection Council (PEPC) statutorily required to meet under Section 3(6) of PEPA 1997?
A
At least once a month
B
At least once every six months
C
At least once in a year
✓ Correct
D
At least once every two years
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 3(6) of PEPA 1997 mandates that the Council shall meet at least once in a year.
Q. 5
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 5 of PEPA 1997, who is the administrative and operational head of the Pakistan Environmental Protection Agency (Pak-EPA)?
A
Inspector General of Forests
B
Director General (DG)
✓ Correct
C
Environmental Magistrate
D
Chairman Senate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 5(2) of PEPA 1997 provides that the Federal Agency (Pak-EPA) shall be headed by a Director General appointed by the Federal Government.
Q. 6
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which section of PEPA 1997 strictly prohibits the discharge or emission of any effluent or waste in excess of the National Environmental Quality Standards (NEQS)?
A
Section 6
B
Section 11
✓ Correct
C
Section 15
D
Section 25
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 11(1) of PEPA 1997 mandates: 'Subject to the provisions of this Act and the rules and regulations made thereunder no person shall discharge or emit or allow the discharge or emission of any effluent or waste or air pollutant or noise in an amount, concentration or level which is in excess of the National Environmental Quality Standards'.
Q. 7
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which section of PEPA 1997 requires project proponents to file an Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) or Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) before commencing construction?
A
Section 11
B
Section 12
✓ Correct
C
Section 14
D
Section 18
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 12(1) of PEPA 1997 states that no proponent of a project shall commence construction or operation unless they have filed with the Agency an IEE or, where the project is likely to cause an adverse environmental effect, an EIA, and obtained approval.
Q. 8
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 12(2) of PEPA 1997, what is the statutory time limit within which the Agency must review and communicate its decision on an IEE/EIA approval?
A
30 days
B
60 days
C
Four months (120 days)
✓ Correct
D
One year
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 12(2) stipulates: 'The Federal Agency shall review the initial environmental examination and accord its approval, or require submission of an environmental impact assessment... or approve the environmental impact assessment... within a period of four months'.
Q. 9
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Which section of PEPA 1997 completely prohibits the import of hazardous waste into Pakistan and its territorial waters?
A
Section 10
B
Section 13
✓ Correct
C
Section 17
D
Section 21
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 13 of PEPA 1997 explicitly states: 'No person shall import or cause to be imported for disposal, or generate, transit or dispose of, any hazardous waste into Pakistan and its territorial waters and Exclusive Economic Zone'.
Q. 10
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 14 of PEPA 1997, what is required for any person to handle hazardous substances?
A
A license issued by the Federal Agency or an authority under applicable laws
✓ Correct
B
Only verbal permission from the local police
C
Payment of sales tax
D
Approval from the Ministry of Tourism
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 14 mandates that no person shall generate, collect, consign, transport, treat, dispose of, store, handle, or import any hazardous substance except under a license issued by the Federal Agency.
Q. 11
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is an 'Environmental Protection Order' (EPO) issued under Section 16 of PEPA 1997?
A
An order directing a person or industrial facility to cease, stop, or modify operations or take remedial measures to prevent environmental harm
✓ Correct
B
A court order to demolish residential houses
C
An order establishing a national park
D
A trade tariff on imported oil
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 16, where the Director General is satisfied that the discharge of pollutants is in violation of the Act, he may issue an Environmental Protection Order directing the offender to take immediate remedial steps or cease operations.
Q. 12
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 20 of PEPA 1997, who establishes Environmental Tribunals in Pakistan?
A
Federal Government
✓ Correct
B
Supreme Court Bar Association
C
United Nations Environment Programme
D
Chamber of Commerce
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 20(1) empowers the Federal Government to establish as many Environmental Tribunals as it considers necessary, specifying the territorial limits for each.
Q. 13
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What are the legal qualifications required for the appointment of the Chairperson of an Environmental Tribunal under Section 20(2) of PEPA 1997?
A
A person who is, or has been, or is qualified to be, a Judge of a High Court
✓ Correct
B
Any retired civil servant of BS-20
C
A professor of Environmental Science
D
An environmental NGO activist
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 20(2)(a) specifies that the Chairperson of an Environmental Tribunal must be a person who is, or has been, or is qualified to be, a Judge of a High Court.
Q. 14
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How many Members constitute an Environmental Tribunal under Section 20 of PEPA 1997?
A
A Chairperson and two Members (at least one being a technical expert in the field of environment)
✓ Correct
B
A Chairperson and five Members
C
Only one Judge sitting alone
D
Twelve jury members
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
An Environmental Tribunal consists of a Chairperson and two Members appointed by the Federal Government, of whom at least one must be a technical member with suitable qualifications in environmental science.
Q. 15
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Within how many days can an appeal be filed before the High Court against a final decision or order of an Environmental Tribunal under Section 23 of PEPA 1997?
A
15 days
B
30 days
✓ Correct
C
60 days
D
90 days
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 23 of PEPA 1997 provides that any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Environmental Tribunal may prefer an appeal to the High Court within thirty days of the date of communication of the order.
Q. 16
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 24 of PEPA 1997, who is empowered to try minor environmental offenses punishable with fine under the Act?
A
Environmental Magistrates (Judicial Magistrates of the First Class specially empowered by the High Court)
✓ Correct
B
Traffic Police Officers
C
Local Union Council Chairmen
D
Municipal Sanitary Inspectors
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 24 provides for the appointment of Environmental Magistrates, being Judicial Magistrates of the first class specially empowered in this behalf by the High Court.
Q. 17
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What major constitutional amendment in Pakistan devolved the subject of 'Environmental pollution and ecology' to the provinces in 2010?
A
17th Amendment
B
18th Constitutional Amendment
✓ Correct
C
19th Amendment
D
21st Amendment
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The 18th Constitutional Amendment (April 2010) abolished the Concurrent Legislative List, devolving environment and ecology to the provinces. Pak-EPA retains jurisdiction over Islamabad Capital Territory and federal territories/installations.
Q. 18
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which federal ministry currently houses the Pakistan Environmental Protection Agency (Pak-EPA)?
A
Ministry of Climate Change and Environmental Coordination
✓ Correct
B
Ministry of Industries and Production
C
Ministry of Energy
D
Ministry of Science and Technology
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Pak-EPA operates under the administrative control of the Federal Ministry of Climate Change and Environmental Coordination.
Q. 19
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the Pak-EPA (Review of IEE and EIA) Regulations 2000, projects listed under which Schedule require an Initial Environmental Examination (IEE)?
A
Schedule I
✓ Correct
B
Schedule II
C
Schedule III
D
Schedule IV
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under the Pak-EPA Review of IEE and EIA Regulations 2000, projects listed in Schedule I require an IEE, whereas larger or more sensitive projects in Schedule II require a full EIA.
Q. 20
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Which of the following projects falls under Schedule II of the IEE/EIA Regulations 2000, strictly requiring a full Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
A
A small rural poultry farm with 500 birds
B
Thermal power generation plants with capacity exceeding 200 MW, major dams, and nuclear power plants
✓ Correct
C
Repair of a local rural primary school
D
Installation of household solar panels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Schedule II encompasses major infrastructure projects with significant potential environmental footprints, such as major thermal/hydro/nuclear power plants, oil refineries, and large expressways.
Q. 21
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What is the validity period of an environmental approval (NOC) granted by Pak-EPA for commencement of construction under Regulation 13 of the IEE/EIA Regulations 2000?
A
1 year
B
3 years from the date of issue (extendable on application)
✓ Correct
C
10 years
D
Permanent without expiration
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Regulation 13(1), the approval remains valid for commencement of construction for a period of three years from the date of issue.
Q. 22
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under the IEE/EIA Regulations 2000, what is mandatory before the Agency can approve a full Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
A
A Public Hearing published in national newspapers at least 30 days prior
✓ Correct
B
Approval by the United Nations
C
Secret voting by factory workers
D
Zero public involvement
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Public participation through an advertised Public Hearing (notice published in English and Urdu national dailies giving at least 30 days notice) is a mandatory statutory requirement for EIA review.
Q. 23
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 10 of PEPA 1997, what fund was created to provide financial assistance for environmental projects and pollution abatement?
A
Provincial Revenue Fund
B
Pakistan Environmental Protection (Sustainable Development) Fund
✓ Correct
C
Industrial Subsidy Fund
D
Petroleum Development Fund
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 10 established the Provincial and Federal Sustainable Development Funds to support pollution abatement, environmental conservation, and research.
Q. 24
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Under Section 17 of PEPA 1997, what maximum fine can be imposed by the Environmental Tribunal for non-compliance with Section 11 (NEQS violation) or Section 12 (EIA violation)?
A
Up to Rs. 10,000
B
Up to Rs. 1,000,000 (one million rupees), with additional fine up to Rs. 100,000 for every day the violation continues
✓ Correct
C
Up to Rs. 50,000
D
Strictly imprisonment with no fine
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 17(1), whoever contravenes the provisions of section 11, 12, 13, or 16 is punishable with a fine which may extend to one million rupees, and in case of continuing contravention, an additional fine up to one hundred thousand rupees per day.
Q. 25
Environmental Sciences
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What is the 'Polluter Pays Principle' recognized in modern environmental jurisprudence and applied in Pakistan?
A
The government pays for all industrial waste disposal
B
The polluting party must bear the full cost of preventing, controlling, and repairing the environmental damage caused by their pollution
✓ Correct
C
Polluters are immune from paying any taxes
D
Consumers pay a pollution surcharge on groceries
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The Polluter Pays Principle mandates that the enterprise responsible for causing pollution must internalize and pay for environmental cleanup, restoration, and compensation to victims.
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📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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