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DIGITAL FORENSIC ANALYST - PITB Complete Preparation Guide & Solved Questions (2026) - Apex Rankers
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Instructions / Reading Passage
11 Questions in this set
COMPUTER APTITUDE TEST (Basic Computer Knowledge): Write the correct answer for the provided multiple-choice questions involving expert systems, industrial computer applications (POS, CIM, Actuarial accounting), and management information system (MIS) modeling.
Q. 1
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Expert systems are part of the general area of research known as
A
AI
✓ Correct
B
ES
C
STUDENT
D
RAND
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is the broad field that encompasses the development of expert systems.
Q. 2
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the future, users of a computer system may identify themselves by entering a:
A
Hard print
B
Soft print
C
Voice print
✓ Correct
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Biometric identification methods include voice recognition (voice prints) for user authentication.
Q. 3
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The most prominent system in the retail sales industry is the ________ system:
A
POS (point-of-scale)
✓ Correct
B
COBOL
C
ACM
D
PC/XT
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Point of Sale systems are standard for managing transactions and inventory in retail.
Q. 4
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The integration of the computer with manufacturing is called CIM or
A
CAM
B
CAD
C
Computer manufacturing
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM) refers to the full automation of a manufacturing facility.
Q. 5
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A ________ purpose computer is designed for a specific application:
A
Special
✓ Correct
B
Analog
C
Hybrid
D
Digital
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Special-purpose computers are built to perform one specific set of tasks or applications.
Q. 6
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Actuarial accounting system is associated with the ________ industry:
A
Insurance
✓ Correct
B
Reliable
C
Consistent
D
Exhaustive
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Actuarial science is primarily used by the insurance industry to assess risk and uncertainty.
Q. 7
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A variable that has no physical meaning and is used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to a linear programming problem is known as:
A
Basis
B
Algorithm
C
Artificial variable
✓ Correct
D
Basic variable
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
In linear programming, artificial variables are used to facilitate finding an initial feasible solution.
Q. 8
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
QUB is an example of ________ systems:
A
Problem-solving
B
Inventory
C
Electronic shopping
✓ Correct
D
Algebra
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
QUB (historically standing for Queen's University Belfast Electronic Shopping System experiment or similar early regional academic network paradigms referenced in localized commerce and MIS curriculums) is categorized as an early or specialized example of an Electronic shopping system or transactional network.
Q. 9
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Slack is the calculated time span within which the event must occur:
A
True
✓ Correct
B
False
C
Cannot be said
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Slack in project management represents the amount of time a task can be delayed without affecting the deadline.
Q. 10
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The latest time that the event can be delayed without delaying the completion of the entire project in PERT chart is:
A
Earliest allowable time
B
Latest allowable time
✓ Correct
C
Earliest pass
D
Latest pass
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
This term defines the absolute deadline for a specific node in a PERT network.
Q. 11
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Anthony suggested that the area of management planning and control be segmented into:
A
Operational control
B
Strategic planning
C
Management control
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Anthony's framework includes Strategic Planning, Management Control, and Operational Control.
📜
Instructions / Reading Passage
14 Questions in this set
SYSTEMS AND DECISION-MAKING: Solve questions regarding transaction processing, data collection terminals, operations research history, and the files required for receiving and engineering control systems.
Q. 12
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Which of the following does not fall in the personal Decision-Making Area?
A
Pay-rolls
B
Cash flow analysis
✓ Correct
C
Income-tax assessment and recovery
D
Person's experience
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Cash flow analysis is typically an organizational or corporate financial function rather than personal.
Q. 13
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
How much should an organisation spend for information can be determined by some type of a:
A
Cost analysis
B
Benefit analysis
C
Cost-benefit analysis
✓ Correct
D
Any of the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Organisations weigh the cost of data acquisition against the value/benefit it provides.
Q. 14
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
A transportation problem in which the total supply available at the origins exactly satisfies the total demand required at the destinations is known as:
A
Degenerate solution
B
Balanced transportation problem
✓ Correct
C
Unbalanced transportation problem
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A "Balanced" problem occurs when total supply equals total demand.
Q. 15
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Operations Research came into being due to:
A
Medical reasons
B
Military reasons
✓ Correct
C
Educational reasons
D
To improve transpiration
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Operations Research originated for tactical and logistical planning during World War II.
Q. 16
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The funds management subsystems attempts to:
A
Increase cash input
B
Decrease cash output
C
Balance cash inflow with outflow
✓ Correct
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Effective funds management ensures liquidity by matching timing of inflows and outflows.
Q. 17
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
A turnaround document can be a(n):
A
Punched card
B
OCR document
C
Neither nor (b)
✓ Correct
D
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Based on the specific classification of turnaround documents in the source answer key.
Q. 18
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
In the financial Decision-Making system which of the following is not a transaction processing system input:
A
Cash receipts
B
Cash returns
C
Cash issues
D
Warehouse requisition ship
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Requisition slips are inventory/logistics inputs rather than direct financial transaction inputs.
Q. 19
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Header labels contain:
A
Creation data
✓ Correct
B
Control totals
C
Both and (b)
D
Either nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
File headers typically store metadata such as the creation date and file ID.
Q. 20
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Detected money errors are corrected with:
A
Debit entries
B
Credit entries
C
Both and (b)
✓ Correct
D
Neither nor (b)
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adjustments for errors require offsetting debit or credit entries depending on the nature of the error.
Q. 21
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The model base contains programs:
A
Written by the firm's programmers
B
Provided by the computer vendor
C
Purchased from outside firms, such as software houses
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
A Decision Support System's model base can incorporate software from various origins.
Q. 22
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Management has become more complex because:
A
There is less time to react to competitive actions
B
The equipment used in many of the firm's activities has become more complex
C
Firms have become larger
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Global competition, technological complexity, and organizational scale contribute to management difficulty.
Q. 23
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
What data most likely would not be keyed into the order entry subsystem?
A
Item quantity
B
Customer number
C
Item number
D
Item cost
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Costs are usually master data retrieved from a file rather than manually keyed per order.
Q. 24
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
The engineering change control system makes changes in the:
A
Operations file
✓ Correct
B
Production schedule
C
Work force data
D
All the above
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Design changes directly impact the steps and specifications in the operations file.
Q. 25
Computer Aptitude Test
Difficulty: Hard
(1 Mark)
Corporate modeling software can be used for:
A
Cash planning
B
Operational budgeting
C
Capital budgeting
D
All the above
✓ Correct
E
None of the above
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Modeling software assists in various strategic and operational planning tasks.
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Q. 1
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 40 of the Pakistan Penal Code 1860, the word 'offence' denotes:
A
A thing made punishable by the Pakistan Penal Code or under any special or local law
✓ Correct
B
Only acts involving physical violence against another person
C
Any breach of a civil contract punishable by damages
D
Any moral wrong condemned by society
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 40 of PPC defines 'offence' as a thing made punishable by the Code, or under any special or local law as specified in the section.
Q. 2
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 82 of the Pakistan Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under:
A
Seven years of age
✓ Correct
B
Ten years of age
C
Twelve years of age
D
Fourteen years of age
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 82 of PPC embodies the doctrine of absolute doli incapax: 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.' (Amended to 10 years in some provincial juvenile statutes, but under core PPC Sec 82 it remains 7 years).
Q. 3
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Section 84 of the PPC incorporates the McNaghten Rules regarding which defence?
A
Infancy
B
Act of a person of unsound mind (Insanity)
✓ Correct
C
Involuntary intoxication
D
Right of private defence
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 84 provides legal insanity: 'Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.'
Q. 4
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 96 to 106 of the PPC, the right of private defence of body extends to causing death in which of the following circumstances?
A
An assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt
B
An assault with the intention of committing rape or gratifying unnatural lust
C
An assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting
D
All of the above
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 100 of PPC, the right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntary causing of death if the assault reasonably causes apprehension of death, grievous hurt, rape, unnatural lust, kidnapping/abducting, or wrongful confinement.
Q. 5
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 99 of the PPC, there is NO right of private defence against an act:
A
Done by a private citizen in self defence
B
Done or attempted by a public servant acting in good faith under colour of his office, though not strictly justifiable by law
✓ Correct
C
Committed during nighttime
D
Involving property valued below Rs. 10,000
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 99 lays down acts against which there is no right of private defence, including acts done or attempted by a public servant acting in good faith under colour of office (provided it does not cause reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt), and where there is time to have recourse to public authorities.
Q. 6
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Criminal Conspiracy is defined under which section of the Pakistan Penal Code?
A
Section 120-A
✓ Correct
B
Section 121
C
Section 107
D
Section 141
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 120-A defines Criminal Conspiracy: When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, an illegal act, or an act which is not illegal by illegal means, such an agreement is designated a criminal conspiracy.
Q. 7
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 141 of the PPC, an assembly of how many persons is designated an 'Unlawful Assembly'?
A
Three or more persons
B
Five or more persons
✓ Correct
C
Seven or more persons
D
Ten or more persons
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 141 defines an Unlawful Assembly as an assembly of five or more persons whose common object is one of the five specified illegal objects (e.g. overawing government, resisting legal process, committing mischief/trespass).
Q. 8
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the key principle established in Section 149 of the PPC regarding constructive liability?
A
Every member of an unlawful assembly is guilty of an offence committed in prosecution of common object
✓ Correct
B
Only the leader of the assembly is held liable
C
Members are only liable for civil damages
D
Liability arises only if an active weapon is fired
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 149 PPC provides for constructive liability: If an offence is committed by any member of an unlawful assembly in prosecution of the common object, or such as the members knew to be likely, every person who at the time is a member is guilty of that offence.
Q. 9
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 34 of the PPC, criminal liability is based on acts done by several persons in furtherance of:
A
Common object
B
Common intention
✓ Correct
C
Independent motives
D
Similar knowledge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 34 states: 'When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.'
Q. 10
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under the Islamic provisions (Qisas & Diyat) of the PPC, 'Qatl-i-Amd' (intentional murder) is defined under which section?
A
Section 300
✓ Correct
B
Section 302
C
Section 315
D
Section 318
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 300 PPC defines Qatl-i-Amd: Whoever, with the intention of causing death or with the intention of causing bodily injury likely to cause death, causes the death of that person, commits Qatl-i-Amd. Punishment is provided in Section 302.
Q. 11
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the punishment prescribed under Section 302(a) of the PPC for Qatl-i-Amd when the proof meets the requirements of Tazkiya-al-Shahood?
A
Imprisonment for life
B
Death as Qisas
✓ Correct
C
Fine of Rs. 1,000,000 only
D
Banishment from the province
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 302(a) PPC, whoever commits Qatl-i-Amd shall be punished with death as Qisas if the proof complies with the Islamic standards of evidence under Article 17 of the QSO.
Q. 12
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 315 of the PPC, 'Qatl Shibh-i-Amd' refers to:
A
Murder by mistake of act or mistake of fact
B
Whoever, with intent to cause harm to body or mind, causes death by means of a weapon or act which in ordinary course of nature is NOT likely to cause death
✓ Correct
C
Death caused by rash or negligent driving
D
Premeditated murder with a firearm
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 315 defines Qatl Shibh-i-Amd: Whoever with intent to cause bodily harm causes death using a means or weapon not likely to cause death in the ordinary course of nature. Punishment is Diyat and imprisonment up to 25 years as Ta'zir.
Q. 13
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 318 of the PPC, 'Qatl-i-Khata' (homicide by mistake/accident) occurs when death is caused without intention by:
A
Mistake of act or mistake of fact
✓ Correct
B
Poisoning
C
Conspiracy with others
D
Armed robbery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 318 defines Qatl-i-Khata: Whoever, without any intention to cause death or cause harm to a person, causes the death of such person, either by mistake of act or by mistake of fact. Punishment is Diyat.
Q. 14
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What is the minimum statutory value of 'Diyat' under Section 323 of the Pakistan Penal Code?
A
The equivalent of 30,630 grams of silver
✓ Correct
B
The equivalent of 1,000 grams of gold
C
A fixed amount of Rs. 500,000
D
The equivalent of 10 camels
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 323(1) PPC states that the Federal Government shall declare the value of Diyat on the first day of July each year, which shall not be less than the value of 30,630 grams of silver.
Q. 15
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 332 of the PPC, hurt caused to the human body is classified into four main categories. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A
Itlaf-i-Udw
B
Itlaf-i-Salahiyyat-i-Udw
C
Shajjah and Jurh
D
Grievous Breach
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 332 defines five kinds of hurt: (a) Itlaf-i-udw (amputation), (b) Itlaf-i-salahiyyat-i-udw (destroying function), (c) Shajjah (hurt on head or face), (d) Jurh (hurt on body other than head/face), and (e) all other hurts.
Q. 16
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 337 of the PPC, 'Shajjah' is a hurt inflicted specifically on which part of the body?
A
Head or face
✓ Correct
B
Chest and abdomen
C
Legs and arms
D
Spinal cord only
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 337 defines Shajjah as hurt caused by any person on the head or face of any person, which does not amount to Itlaf-i-udw or Itlaf-i-salahiyyat-i-udw. It is divided into six degrees (Khafifah, Mudihah, Hashimah, Munaqqilah, Ammah, Damighah).
Q. 17
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
What type of Jurh (wound) extends into the cavity of the trunk (chest or abdomen) under Section 337-C PPC?
A
Jurh Jaifah
✓ Correct
B
Jurh Ghayr-Jaifah
C
Shajjah Mudihah
D
Shajjah Damighah
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Under Section 337-C, Jurh is of two kinds: (a) Jaifah (a wound that penetrates into the body cavity of the trunk), and (b) Ghayr-Jaifah (does not penetrate into a body cavity).
Q. 18
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 378 of the PPC, the essential elements of 'Theft' require moving:
A
Movable property out of the possession of any person without consent, dishonestly
✓ Correct
B
Immovable property by demolishing boundary walls
C
Property with the owner's express consent under mistaken belief
D
Property from an abandoned public park
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 378 PPC requires: (1) Dishonest intention to take, (2) Movable property, (3) Out of the possession of any person, (4) Without that person's consent, and (5) Moving that property in order to such taking.
Q. 19
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The offence of 'Extortion' under Section 383 of the PPC differs from theft primarily because:
A
Extortion involves inducing the person to deliver property by intentionally putting them in fear of injury
✓ Correct
B
Extortion can only be committed by public servants
C
Extortion does not require dishonest intention
D
Extortion requires five or more accused persons
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 383 PPC defines Extortion: Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person or to any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to deliver any property or valuable security, commits extortion.
Q. 20
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 390 of the PPC, when does Theft or Extortion become 'Robbery'?
A
When property stolen exceeds Rs. 100,000
B
When the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause death, hurt, or wrongful restraint (or fear of instant death/hurt/restraint)
✓ Correct
C
When committed after sunset and before sunrise
D
When committed by a registered criminal gang
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 390 PPC provides that theft is robbery if, in order to committing theft, or in carrying away stolen property, the offender voluntarily causes or attempts to cause death, hurt, or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death, hurt, or wrongful restraint.
Q. 21
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Under Section 391 of the PPC, how many persons are required to conjointly commit or attempt to commit an offence for it to constitute 'Dacoity'?
A
Three or more persons
B
Four or more persons
C
Five or more persons
✓ Correct
D
Ten or more persons
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 391 PPC defines Dacoity: 'When five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery, or where the whole number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit a robbery... amount to five or more, every person so committing... is said to commit dacoity.'
Q. 22
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
Criminal Breach of Trust is defined under which section of the Pakistan Penal Code?
A
Section 403
B
Section 405
✓ Correct
C
Section 415
D
Section 420
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 405 PPC defines Criminal Breach of Trust: Whoever, being entrusted with property or dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, commits criminal breach of trust. Section 406 provides the punishment.
Q. 23
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
The offence of 'Cheating' is defined under which section of the PPC?
A
Section 415
✓ Correct
B
Section 420
C
Section 409
D
Section 463
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 415 PPC defines Cheating: Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person to deliver any property. Section 420 provides the punishment for cheating and dishonestly inducing delivery of property.
Q. 24
Law
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Under Section 425 of the PPC, 'Mischief' involves:
A
Causing wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person by destroying or diminishing the value of property
✓ Correct
B
Trespassing onto agricultural lands at night
C
Stealing domestic cattle
D
Falsifying academic credentials
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 425 PPC defines Mischief: Whoever with intent to cause, or knowing that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to the public or to any person, causes the destruction of any property, or any change that diminishes its value or utility.
Q. 25
Law
Difficulty: Easy
(1 Mark)
What constitutes 'Criminal Trespass' under Section 441 of the PPC?
A
Entering into or upon property in the possession of another with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy
✓ Correct
B
Entering a public building during business hours
C
Passing through an unfenced barren desert
D
Walking along a designated public right of way
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Section 441 PPC requires entering property in another's possession with intent to commit an offence or intimidate, insult, or annoy, or lawfully entering but unlawfully remaining with such intent.
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Instructions / Reading Passage
25 Questions in this set
Select the best option/antonym for the following English Vocabulary questions:
Q. 1
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Autonomy
A
submissiveness
B
dependence
✓ Correct
C
subordination
D
slavery
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Autonomy refers to self-governance; its opposite is relying on others.
Q. 2
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Assert
A
agree
B
acquiesce
C
abjure
✓ Correct
D
abdicate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To assert is to state firmly; abjure means to solemnly renounce or deny.
Q. 3
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Accord
A
solution
B
act
C
dissent
✓ Correct
D
concord
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Accord signifies agreement or harmony; dissent represents disagreement.
Q. 4
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alive
A
passive
B
dead
✓ Correct
C
asleep
D
drowsy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
The direct biological opposite of being alive is being dead.
Q. 5
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ancestors
A
supporters
B
disciples
C
followers
D
descendants
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ancestors are those from whom one is descended; descendants are one's progeny.
Q. 6
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abdicate
A
claim
✓ Correct
B
snatch
C
plunder
D
seize
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To abdicate is to renounce a throne or power; to claim is to assert a right to it.
Q. 7
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Abhorrence
A
aversion
B
liking
✓ Correct
C
appreciation
D
fear
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Abhorrence is extreme hatred; liking indicates a feeling of fondness or pleasure.
Q. 8
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquisitive
A
miserly
B
frugal
✓ Correct
C
simple
D
austere
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acquisitive means eager to get wealth; frugal implies being economical or sparing.
Q. 9
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Audacious
A
timid
✓ Correct
B
vulgar
C
low
D
unpractised
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Audacious refers to being bold and daring; timid means showing a lack of courage.
Q. 10
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acquitted
A
entrusted
B
convicted
✓ Correct
C
freed
D
burdened
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To be acquitted is to be cleared of a charge; to be convicted is to be found guilty.
Q. 11
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Absolute
A
scarce
B
limited
✓ Correct
C
faulty
D
efficient
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Absolute means total or unconditional; limited implies having fixed bounds.
Q. 12
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acute
A
sharp
B
critical
C
dull
✓ Correct
D
sensitive
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acute describes something sharp or intense; dull describes something blunt or weak.
Q. 13
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Anathematise
A
radiate
B
regulate
C
deceive
D
bless
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To anathematise is to curse or denounce; its spiritual opposite is to bless.
Q. 14
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Addition
A
multiplication
B
subtraction
✓ Correct
C
enumeration
D
division
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Subtraction is the mathematical operation that removes, while addition adds.
Q. 15
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Attract
A
repulse
B
reject
C
repel
✓ Correct
D
distract
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To attract is to pull toward; to repel is to push away or drive back.
Q. 16
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Avoidance
A
possession
B
pursuit
✓ Correct
C
passion
D
power
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Avoidance is the act of staying away; pursuit is the act of following or chasing.
Q. 17
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alleviation
A
exaggeration
B
exasperation
C
magnification
D
intensification
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
While "alleviation" means to make suffering, deficiency, or a problem less severe (to ease or mitigate), "intensification" means to make something grow more acute, strong, or severe.
Q. 18
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Alienate
A
gather
B
identify
C
assemble
D
unite
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
To alienate is to isolate or cause to become unfriendly; to unite is to join together.
Q. 19
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Adequate
A
profuse
B
abounding
C
scanty
✓ Correct
D
abundant
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Adequate means sufficient; scanty means small or insufficient in quantity.
Q. 20
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Appointment
A
disappointment
B
suspension
C
dismissal
✓ Correct
D
discharge
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
"Appointment" refers to the act of officially assigning a job, position, or office to someone. Therefore, dismissal (the act of officially removing someone from a job or position) is its direct structural and professional antonym.
Q. 21
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amalgamate
A
generate
B
repair
C
materialize
D
separate
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amalgamate means to combine into one; separate means to part or divide.
Q. 22
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Acclamation
A
denunciation
✓ Correct
B
suppression
C
termination
D
applause
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Acclamation is loud approval; denunciation is public condemnation.
Q. 23
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Ambiguous
A
obscure
B
secular
C
explicit
✓ Correct
D
equivocate
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Ambiguous means vague or unclear; explicit means stated clearly and in detail.
Q. 24
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Antipathy
A
obedience
B
admiration
C
agreement
D
fondness
✓ Correct
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Antipathy is a deep-seated feeling of dislike; fondness is affection or liking.
Q. 25
English Language Comprehension
Difficulty: Medium
(1 Mark)
Amicable
A
cunning
B
shy
C
hostile
✓ Correct
D
crazy
💡
Step-by-Step Explanation & Concept Rationale
Amicable refers to friendliness and goodwill; hostile refers to unfriendliness/opposition.
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